Cardiology Board Review – Part II

March 21, 2013

A 65-year-old man is evaluated for 2 months of central chest pain with exertion and relief with rest, exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower-extremity edema. He has a 25-year history of hypertension and a 44-year history of smoking. His only medication is hydrochlorothiazide. On physical examination, he is afebrile. Blood pressure is 118/80 mm Hg, pulse is 95/min, and respiration rate is 16/min. There is mild jugular venous distention. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm, normal S 1 and S 2 , and no murmurs or S 3 . Crackles are heard at both lung bases. There is mild bilateral edema at the ankles. Laboratory studies show a serum troponin T level of less than 0.01 ng/mL (0.01 µg/L). Electrocardiogram is normal. Echocardiogram shows an

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Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

1. Cardiac catheterization 2. Cardiac MRI 3. Radionuclide ventriculography 4. Nuclear medicine stress test 5. Standard exercise stress test

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Ischemic • • • Other: R-sided failure HOCM Diastolic Valvular

CHF Etiologies

CHF Nonischemic Dilated Restrictive High Output Hyperthyroid Idiopathic Amyloidosis Anemia Toxins (EtOH, cocaine) Hemochromatosis Tachycardia induced Peripartum Drugs (Chemo, HAART) Infections (Viral, Lyme, Rickettsial) Sarcoidosis

A 70-year-old woman is evaluated for a 1-month history of dyspnea on exertion and fatigue. She can still perform activities of daily living, including vacuuming, grocery shopping, and ascending two flights of stairs carrying laundry. She has a history of hypertension, mild COPD, and smoking. Her medications are lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and albuterol as needed. On exam, she is afebrile. BP 110/80 mm Hg and HR 70/min. Jugular veins are not distended. There is a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border that radiates to the axilla, which was not noted during an examination 1 year ago. Rate and rhythm are regular, S 1 and S 2 are normal, and there is no S 3 . The lung sounds are distant but clear without wheezing, and there is no edema. Laboratory studies show normal hemoglobin and TSH levels. Electrocardiogram global hypokinesis, and mild mitral regurgitation. Chest radiograph shows flattening of the diaphragms but is otherwise normal Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

1. Amlodipine 2. Carvedilol 3. Digoxin 4. Losartan 5. Spironolactone

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A 60-year-old white woman is evaluated for dyspnea with mild activity (ascending less than one flight of stairs, walking less than one block on level ground) that has been stable for the past year. She has a history of nonischemic cardiomyopathy (last ejection fraction 20%). Her current medications are lisinopril, carvedilol, digoxin, and furosemide. She had an implantable ICD placed 1 year ago.

On physical examination, she is afebrile. Blood pressure is 95/75 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 70/min. Jugular veins are not distended, and the lungs are clear. Cardiac examination discloses a regular rate and rhythm, no murmurs, normal S 1 and S 2 , and no S 3 . There is no edema. Laboratory studies show a serum potassium level of 4.7 meq/L and a creatinine level of 1.8 mg/dL, which has been stable for the past year.

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1. Angiotensin receptor blocker 2. Hydralazine 3. Metolazone 4. Spironolactone

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A 65-year-old black man is evaluated during a routine annual visit. Over the past year he has had a progressive decline in functional status. Last year he could exercise by walking several blocks at a time, and now he gets tired after one block at most; sometimes he gets short of breath with dressing and showering. He reports no symptoms of orthopnea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and has had no change in medications since last year. He has a 25-year history of hypertension, a 5-year history of ischemic cardiomyopathy, and received an implantable ICD 1 year ago. An echocardiogram done 6 months ago showed an ejection fraction of 20%. He takes aspirin, enalapril, metoprolol, spironolactone, furosemide, digoxin, pravastatin, and isosorbide dinitrate. On physical examination, he is afebrile. Blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. There is no jugular venous distention and the lungs are clear. Cardiac examination discloses a regular rate and rhythm with no S 3 baseline. TFTs wnl, EKG shows NSR.

Which of the following is the most appropriate adjustment to this patient’s treatment?

1. Add hydralazine 2. Increase digoxin 3. Increase furosemide 4. Stop metoprolol

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NYHA CHF Staging ***know this***

I

NYHA Stage

II III IV

Symptoms

asymptomatic Slight limitation of activity Marked limitation of activity Symptoms at rest

1-year mortality

5-10% 15-30% 15-30% 50-60%

CHF Chronic Med Therapy

Med

ACEI Bblocker Loop diuretic Digoxin

MOA

? Improved contractility

Which stage?

Afterload reduction Prevents remodeling & prevents arrhythmias diuresis All All PRN ? III/IV Spironolactone Suppresses Aldo thus decreases Na retention III/IV Hydralazine & Isosorbide Dinitrate Afterload reduction III/IV (esp African American)

Mortality benefit?

Decreased by 20% Decreased by 30%

Misc

*don’t start if acutely decompensated None Can augment with thiazide (metolazone) None (but does decrease hospitalizations & improves symptoms) Decreased by 30% Decreased in African Americans *if cannot tolerate 2/2 gynecomastia, can substitute Eplerenone

A 72-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue and dyspnea. Over the last several months to a year, he has had increasing fatigue, exercise intolerance, and dyspnea on even mild exertion. He becomes short of breath walking across a room, although he is asymptomatic at rest. He has a history of coronary artery disease, with a myocardial infarction and four-vessel coronary artery bypass graft surgery 4 years ago. He also has hyperlipidemia. Medications are aspirin, low-dose carvedilol, lisinopril, digoxin, spironolactone, furosemide, pravastatin. On exam, his BP is 92/57 mm Hg, HR 57/min, and RR 12/min. PMI is displaced laterally. Rhythm is regular and bradycardic. S 1 and S 2 are normal, with a grade 2/6 to 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the apex. An S 3 is present. Estimated CVP is 8 cm H 2 O; there is no hepatojugular reflux. The lungs are clear. There is no ascites. The liver edge is palpable 1 cm below the right costal margin. The lower extremities are warm with decreased distal pulses bilaterally. There is no ankle edema.

msec, and QT interval is 380 msec. Left bundle branch block is seen. A dobutamine stress echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 33% with a large anteroapical area of akinesis and no ischemia.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

1. Add amiodarone 2. Biventricular pacemaker-defibrillator 3. Dual-chamber pacemaker 4. Implantable defibrillator

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Device Therapy

• •

ICD

– For prevention of primary sudden cardiac death if: Class II or III on optimal meds + – Expected survival > 1 yr + EF <35% For secondary prevention if: hx of significant vent arrhythmia or cardiac arrest

BiV Pacemaker (Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy)

– In CHF, interventricular conduction delay is common -> poor coordination of ventricular contraction -> poor hemodynamics – BiV device: one lead pacing RV, one lead in RA to sense intrinsic rhythm, one lead in coronary sinus to pace LV – Criteria : • Class III or IV + EF <35% + Ventricular dyssynchrony (QRS >120ms, LBBB) – Benefit: increased QOL, increased exercise capacity, decreased symptoms, decreased mortality 22%

A 45-year-old man with NICM presents to the ED with progressive shortness of breath over one month and edema but no chest pain. Previously, he was symptomatic with moderate activity (New York Heart Association class II heart failure). He has a dual-chamber implantable ICD. Current medications are lisinopril, furosemide, and carvedilol; however, he ran out of carvedilol 6 weeks ago. His most recent echocardiogram 3 months ago showed an EF of 20%. On exam, he is afebrile, BP 80/50 mm Hg, HR 115/min, and RR 16/min. He has jugular venous distention. Heart rhythm is regular, and an S 3 is heard. Lung examination reveals crackles. Edema is present. The extremities are cool, and mentation is intact. Pertinent laboratory results include serum sodium, 130 meq/L, creatinine, 2.6 mg/dL (was normal msec. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

1. Intravenous dobutamine 2. Intravenous furosemide 3. Intravenous nesiritide 4. Oral carvedilol

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Cardiogenic Shock

• • • • • Causes: – Extensive MI (75%), myocarditis, end stage CM, prolonged bypass, etc Criteria: – Sustained hypotension + decreased CI (<2.2 L/min/m 2 ) + increased PCWP If evidence of inadequate perfusion, need INOTROPIC support – Dobutamine – inotrope with some vasodilation – Dopamine (low-med dose) • 1-5µg/kg/min = increased renal blood flow and urine output (dopaminergic agonist properties) • 5-15µg/kg/min = increased renal blood flow, increased HR, increased cardiac contractility/cardiac output (beta-agonist) • >15µg/kg/min = vasoconstriction (alpha-agonist) – Milrinone • – Phosphodiesterase inhibitor in cardiac and vascular tissue – vasodilation and inotropic effects watch for worsened hypotension; don’t use in renal failure If refractory to meds, consider Intraaortic Balloon Pump – Inflates during diastole to help with coronary perfusion – Deflates during systole to help decrease afterload If still refractory, consider LVAD or transplant

A 40-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after an episode of syncope at work. He has had a 1-week history of progressive shortness of breath, orthopnea, and fatigue. On admission he is found to be hypotensive and is started on intravenous dopamine. Echocardiogram shows dilated left and right ventricles with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 10% and no regional wall motion abnormalities. Telemetry shows frequent and prolonged runs of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. On physical examination, he is afebrile. Blood pressure is 70 mm Hg systolic, pulse is 110/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. The jugular veins are distended. Heart rate is regular, and a summation gallop is noted. There is no rash or skin lesions. Extremities are cool with no edema. Labs show a serum troponin level of 5 ng/mL. Chest radiograph shows mild cardiomegaly and pulmonary edema and no other abnormalities. Electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia,

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after admission shows normal coronary arteries. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?

Biventricular pacemaker placement Cardiac MRI Endomyocardial biopsy Implantable defibrillator placement

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Who did President Obama pick to win the NCAA Tournament?

1. Louisville 2. Kansas 3. Duke 4. Indiana 5. North Carolina 6. Gonzaga 7. Creighton

A 77-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for intermittent dizziness over the past few days. She does not have chest discomfort, dyspnea, palpitations, syncope, orthopnea, or edema. She underwent coronary artery bypass graft surgery 6 years ago after a myocardial infarction. She has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation with a history of rapid ventricular response. She notes that over the past several years, she feels she has slowed down and has had problems with memory, which she attributes to aging. Medications are metoprolol, HCTZ, pravastatin, lisinopril, aspirin, and warfarin.

On physical examination, her blood pressure is 137/88 mm Hg and her pulse is 52/min. Estimated central venous pressure is 7 cm H 2 O. The point of maximal impulse is felt in the fifth intercostal space and at the midcostal line. Cardiac auscultation reveals bradycardia with regular S 1 and S 2 , as well as an S 4 . A grade 2/6 early systolic murmur is heard at the left upper sternal border. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Edema is not present.

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On telemetry, she has sinus bradycardia with rates between 40/min and 50/min, with two symptomatic sinus pauses of 3 to 5 seconds each. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

1. Add amiodarone 2. Discontinue metoprolol 3. Echocardiography 4. Pacemaker implantation

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Bradycardia

• • • Don’t forget about Reversible Causes!

– Lyme, hypothyroidism, hyperK, meds, ischemia Sick Sinus Syndrome/Sinus Node dysfunction – – – Typically seen in elderly Associated with paroxysmal Afib/flutter in 50% Tachy-brady syndrome = common subtype • Tx: pacemaker + aggressive rate control AV Block – 1 st degree = prolonged PR due to delay within AV node – 2 nd degree • Mobitz I (Wenckebach) = progressive delay of conduction within AV node, therefore progressive elongation of PR resulting in dropped beat • Mobitz II = constant PR with intermittent failure of conduction – Needs pacemaker if advanced or symptomatic – 3 rd degree • Escape rate: – Junctional (40-60 beats/min) – narrow QRS – Ventricular (slower) – wide QRS • If reversible (Meds, Lyme, ischemia) – can monitor • If nonreversible, need PACEMAKER

A 54-year-old man is evaluated for recurrent arrhythmia. He was diagnosed with atrial flutter with a rapid ventricular response 6 weeks ago. Rate control was initially difficult to achieve; he underwent cardioversion and was started on metoprolol. He has had general fatigue since initiation of metoprolol. Two days ago, he had a recurrence of his arrhythmia; his fatigue worsened, and he began experiencing dyspnea on exertion. He denies chest pain, lightheadedness, and heart racing. He has no other medical problems, and his only other medication is daily aspirin. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 123/65 mm Hg and his pulse is 50/min. BMI is 24. Cardiac examination reveals bradycardia with an irregular rhythm, normal S with a 6:1 block and a ventricular rate of 50/min.

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1 and S murmurs or gallops. Lungs are clear to auscultation. The electrocardiogram shows atrial flutter

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2 , and no

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Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

1. Add amiodarone 2. Add digoxin 3. Discontinue metoprolol; initiate flecainide 4. Radiofrequency ablation

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Tachycardia

• • AVNRT (60% of SVT) – reentry circuit within AV node AVRT (30% of SVT) – accessory pathway • WPW Tachycardia Sinus Tach Regular Atrial tach AVRT AVNRT Narrow Irregular Flutter Afib MAT Pre excitation (6%) Wide SVT with aberrant conduction (20%) Vtach (80%) • • • If any of the above are unstable - need synchronized cardioversion If stable: vagal maneuver or adenosine (if AV node part of reentry circuit) • ***Do NOT use AV nodal blockers if AVRT!!!

After arrhythmia terminated, then check: EKG: looking for prior MI, LVH, long QT Echo: looking for underlying structural disease Labs: electrolytes, TFTs (K, Ca, Mg – disturbances may precipitate arrhythmias)

An 18-year-old woman is evaluated for recurrent syncope. She has experienced four syncopal episodes in her lifetime, all of which occurred during activity. The most recent was last week, when she dove into a pool and had a brief loss of consciousness. Episodes have no prodrome, and she has had no dizziness. She is healthy and active, without cardiopulmonary complaints, and takes no medications. Her maternal cousin drowned at age 10 years, and her mother has been diagnosed with a seizure disorder. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 112/65 mm Hg and her pulse is 67/min and

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Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Brugada syndrome 2. Long QT syndrome 3. Short QT syndrome 4. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

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A 67-year-old man presented to the emergency department 2 days ago with an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. During the initial evaluation, he became unresponsive due to ventricular fibrillation. He was successfully resuscitated and taken to the cardiac catheterization lab, where a 100% occlusion of his proximal left anterior descending artery was stented. His postinfarction course was notable for mild heart failure, which has now resolved. He is now stable on his current medical regimen. Current medications include aspirin, metoprolol, atorvastatin, clopidogrel, and lisinopril. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 115/72 mm Hg, his pulse is 65/min, and his respiration rate is 12/min. There is no jugular venous distention, crackles, murmur, or S ejection fraction of 42%.

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3 .

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Which of the following is the best management option at this time?

1. Add amiodarone 2. Continue medical management 3. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placement 4. Order electrophysiology study

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Tachycardia Pearls…

• • • • • • Afib cardioversion for long-term control: – Without anticoagulation if Afib <48h – If >48h, need at least 3 weeks of therapeutic INR OR negative TEE while on heparin gtt *need 4 weeks anticoagulation after cardioversion – WPW = AVRT *If Afib, use PROCAINAMIDE No AV nodal blocking agents if Afib -> will go into Vfib!!!

PVCs – treat only if symptomatic (AVN blockers) – NSVT – (total duration <30s) If symptomatic – use AVN blockers – – Treat reversible ischemia if present • ICD if EF <35% (to protect from SVT) EP study if EF 35-55% -> if can induce SVT, then ICD needed – SVT (>30s) Commonly seen with prior MI – – Amio or Lidocaine in acute setting (unless unstable – then cardioversion) ICD if EF 35%; EP study if >35% for decision on ICD – Sudden Cardiac Death Vfib = most common cause • • Triggers: electrolyte disturbances, druge (cocaine, QT prolonging agents, etc), acute stress Genetics: familial dilated CM, HOCM, long QT syndrome, Brugada Syndrome

Which team has won the most NCAA Tournament Championships?

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1. Kentucky 2. Duke 3. UNC 4. Indiana 5. UCLA 6. Michigan State 7. Kansas

A 45-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a 2-day history of substernal sharp intermittent chest pain that is aggravated by deep breaths. He began experiencing severe chest pain 4 hours prior to his emergency department visit. He has a 3-day history of nonproductive cough, sore throat, myalgias, and malaise. He has had hypertension for 12 years. His medications are hydrochlorothiazide and amlodipine. On physical examination, temperature is 37.8 °C (100.0 °F), blood pressure is 168/100 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respiration rate is 26/min. Oxygen saturation on ambient air is 96%. The patient’s face and chest appear diaphoretic. The oropharynx is erythematous. There is no jugular venous distention and no hepatojugular reflux. Cardiac examination discloses a two-component rub that is loudest at the apex, distant heart sounds, and no murmurs. Pulmonary examination discloses normal breath sounds and no crackles. Initial serum troponin T level is 0.6 ng/mL. ECG shows sinus tachycardia and concave upward ST-segment elevation in leads V 1 through V

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6 radiograph shows no infiltrates and a normal cardiac silhouette. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Acute myocardial infarction 2. Acute viral pericarditis 3. Costochondritis 4. Pleuritis 5. Pulmonary embolism

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A 34-year-old woman is evaluated for sharp intermittent pleuritic chest pain that has persisted for 1 week. The pain is worse when she lies down in the supine position. She has had no fever, chills, cough, or weight loss. She had acute viral pericarditis 6 months ago that was treated initially with ibuprofen, but when she failed to respond after 3 days, a 10-day tapering dosage of prednisone was instituted, leading to resolution of clinical symptoms. Cardiac examination discloses a pericardial friction rub at the lower left sternal border but no gallops. ECG consistent with acute pericarditis.

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Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

1. Colchicine 2. High-dose ASA 3. High-dose Ibuprofen 4. Prednisone

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Acute Pericarditis

Causes

Idiopathic Viral Bacterial Uremia Neoplasm Other • •

Acute Therapy

–

1

st •

line: Anti-inflammatories (taper over 4-6 weeks)

High dose ASA 650mg q4-6h – Preferred if pt post-MI • Ibuprofen 800mg q8h – Not if renal failure –

2

nd

line: Colchicine (add to 1

st

line if persistent symptoms)

• Not if renal failure –

3

rd

line: Prednisone 60mg/d

–

Avoid anticoagulation 10-30% will recur

–

Colchicine for recurrent disease

A 45-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a 3-day history of progressively worsening dyspnea on exertion to the point that he is unable to walk more than one block without resting. He has had sharp intermittent pleuritic chest pain and a nonproductive cough with myalgias and malaise for 7 days and has had orthostatic dizziness for 2 days. He is taking no medications. On exam, temperature is 37.7 °C (99.9 °F), blood pressure is 88/44 mm Hg, pulse is 125/min, and respiration rate is 29/min. O2 Sat is 95%. Pulsus paradoxus is 15 mm Hg. Estimated CVP is 10 cm H 2 O. He has muffled heart sounds with no rubs. Lung auscultation reveals normal breath sounds and no crackles. There is 2+ pedal edema. Blood pressure and heart rate are unchanged after a 500-mL intravenous normal saline challenge.

shows a large circumferential pericardial effusion, right ventricular and atrial free wall diastolic collapse, normal left ventricular systolic function, and an ejection fraction of 70%.

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Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

1. Dobutamine 2. Levofloxacin & Tobramycin 3. Pericardiocentesis 4. Surgical Pericardiectomy

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Tamponade

• • •

Clinical:

– Dyspnea, tachycardia, +JVD, hypotension

Echo clues:

– Diastolic collapse of R sided chambers – Increased respiratory variation of mitral & tricuspid inflow velocities – IVD dilation

Treatment:

– Volume & pressors & – Avoid mechanical ventilation!! (decreases venous return) – If due to dissection, pericardiocentesis can exacerbate instability, so need surgery

A 45-year-old man is evaluated for a 6-month history of progressive dyspnea on exertion and lower-extremity edema. He can now walk only one block before needing to rest. He reports orthostatic dizziness in the last 2 weeks. He denies chest pain, palpitations, or syncope. He was diagnosed 15 years ago with non-Hodgkin lymphoma, which was treated with chest irradiation and chemotherapy and is now in remission. He also has type 2 diabetes mellitus. He takes furosemide (80 mg, 3 times daily), glyburide, and low-dose aspirin.

On physical examination, he is afebrile. Blood pressure is 125/60 mm Hg supine and 100/50 mm Hg standing; pulse is 90/min supine and 110/min standing. Respiration rate is 23/min. BMI is 28. There is jugular venous distention and jugular venous engorgement with inspiration . Estimated central venous pressure is 15 cm H 2 O. Cardiac examination discloses diminished heart sounds and a prominent early diastolic sound but no gallops or murmurs. Pulmonary auscultation discloses extremities show 3+ pitting edema to the level of the knees. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.

Creat 2, BUN 40, total cholesterol 300, Albumin 3.0, ALT 130, AST 112, UA negative for protein Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy 2. Constrictive Pericarditis 3. Nephrotic Syndrome 4. Systolic Heart Failure

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Constrictive Pericarditis vs Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

Both result in severe diastolic dysfunction and restricted ventricular filling Both present thus with R-sided heart failure signs/symptoms Etiology BNP CXR: pericardial calcifications EKG: Presence of BBB Echo: LVH and atrial enlargement Echo: diastolic motion of septum Echo: decreased LV filling during inspiration MRI: increased pericardial thickness RHC: Equalized diastolic LV and RV pressures -

Constrictive Pericarditis

Same as Pericarditis normal +/ Not supportive + + (Kussmaul’s sign) + + -

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

Infiltrative Diseases (amyloid, sarcoid, etc) Typically elevated Supports dx +

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How many times have all 4 #1 seeds made it to the Final Four?

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5

A 35-year-old black woman is evaluated for progressive dyspnea 3 weeks after delivery of her first child. Other than hypertension during pregnancy, the pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. She has no history of cardiovascular disease. On physical examination, the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg in both upper extremities, the heart rate is 105/min and regular, and the respiratory rate is 28/min. The estimated central venous pressure is 10 cm H 2 O and there are no carotid bruits. The apical impulse is displaced and diffuse. There is a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur noted at the apex. Third and fourth heart sounds are also noted at the apex. There is dullness to percussion at the posterior lung bases bilaterally, and there are crackles extending up half of the lung fields. Lower extremity pulses are normal and without delay, but pedal edema is present.

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changes. The chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral pleural effusions and interstitial infiltrates. The aortic contour is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s current symptoms?

1. Acute Myocardial Infarction 2. Aortic Dissection 3. Coarctation of the Aorta 4. Peripartum Cardiomyopathy

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CV Disease & Pregnancy

• •

Meds to Avoid in Pregnancy:

–

Warfarin, ACEI/ARB, Nitroprusside, Amio Peripartum Cardiomyopathy (*Major cause of pregnancy-related deaths in North America)

–

occurs during the last trimester of pregnancy or up to 6 months postpartum in the absence of an identifiable cause

–

RF: multifetal pregnancies, multiparous women; >30 yo, black women, gestational hypertension, preeclampsia

–

Tx: delivery & typical heart failure management (avoiding ACEI/ARB)

•

Anticoag if EF <35% (LMWH)

•

Consider IVIG or Pentoxifylline

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How many times has the Championship game went into overtime?

1. 5 2. 6 3. 7 4. 8 5. 9

A 32-year-old woman presents for evaluation of a murmur recently heard on physical examination. She has noted mild reduction in exercise capacity over the past 6 to 12 months. She has no known history of cardiovascular disease, although a murmur was reported early in life. On physical examination, the blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg and the pulse is 68/min and regular. The estimated central venous pressure is mildly elevated; the jugular venous pulse contour demonstrates equal a and v waves. The apical impulse is not displaced. There is an impulse noted along the left sternal border. The S 1 is normal. The S 2 is split throughout the respiratory cycle . A grade 2/6 midsystolic murmur is noted at the second left intercostal space. There is a grade 2/6 diastolic rumble noted at the lower left sternal border. Both of these murmurs increase with inspiration. The remaining findings on physical examination are unremarkable. An electrocardiogram demonstrates normal sinus rhythm with normal axis and intervals.

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Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

1. Atrial septal defect 2. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 3. Left atrial myxoma 4. Pulmonary arterial hypertension 5. Rheumatic mitral stenosis

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An asymptomatic 25-year-old man is evaluated for hypertension diagnosed during a recent pre employment physical examination. He does not remember being told about hypertension in the past, and he has no family history of hypertension. He is not taking any medications. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 170/60 mm Hg in both upper extremities. The heart rate is 65/min and regular. Carotid examination is normal; estimated central venous pressure is not elevated. The apical impulse is displaced and sustained. An ejection click is noted at the apex and left sternal border. There is a grade 2/6 early systolic murmur noted at the second right intercostal space. No diastolic murmur is noted over the anterior precordium. Systolic and diastolic murmurs are noted over the patient’s back. There is no bruit noted over the abdomen. The lower extremity pulses are reduced and delayed .

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Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

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1. Coarctation of the aorta 2. Essential hypertension 3. Pheochromocytoma 4. Renal artery stenosis

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Adult Congenital Heart Disease - Pearls

• • • • •

ASD

* Fixed Split S2 , midsystolic flow murmur & tricuspid diastole rumble *a wave = v wave

VSD

– Holosystolic murmur at LLSB (often obliterates S2) – If large, can cause Eisenmenger’s syndrome (irreversible pulm vascular disease due to longstanding shunt with reversal of flow) – Down’s syndrome

PFO

– Often found in adults when they present with stroke ( paradoxical embolus ) – Some association with migraine headaches

Coarctation

– Associated with Turner’s – and bicuspid Aortic valve Increased BP in arms compared to legs, radial-to-femoral artery delay, systolic murmur often with +S4, “rib notching” and “figure 3 sign” on CXR

PDA

– Persistence associated with maternal rubella and premies – “ Machine-like” murmur at L infraclavicular area, wide pulse pressure

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Where is this year’s Final Four being played??

1. Charleston 2. Chicago 3. New York 4. San Antonio 5. Atlanta 6. Miami 7. San Francisco

A 57-year old man is evaluated for cramping discomfort in the right thigh, which occurs when walking two blocks and is relieved quickly with rest. The patient is a house painter who goes up and down ladders frequently in the course of his work. He is a current smoker with a 40-pack year history. His brother has coronary artery disease, and his mother died at age 65 of a heart attack. He is taking no medications. On physical examination, his temperature is normal, pulse is 72/min and regular, and his respiration rate is 16/min. The blood pressure in his right and left arms is 140/84 mm Hg and 140/82 mm Hg. His highest right ankle/foot systolic pressure is 138 mm Hg, and his highest left ankle/foot systolic pressure is 142 mm Hg. Examination of his lower extremities reveals scant hair present below mid-shin level. There is no abdominal or femoral bruit. Distal pulses are present breakdown, or ulceration. Results of a neurologic examination are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

1. MRI of the lumbosacral spine 2. Measurement of ankle-brachial index with exercise 3. Treatment with ibuprofen 4. Venous duplex ultrasonography of the lower extremities

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Peripheral Arterial Disease

• •

Symptoms (Claudication):

–

Mild-Mod: leg fatigue, difficulty walking, atypical leg pain

–

Severe: pain at rest, ulceration, gangrene DDx:

–

OA, sensory neuropathy, Msk pain, Venous disease, Lumbar radiculopathy, Spinal Stenosis (pseudoclaudication)

•

Claudication sites:

PAD - Diagnosis

• • • •

ABIs (ankle pressure/brachial pressure)

–

1.0-1.30 – normal

– – – –

0.91-0.99 – borderline 0.41 0.90

0.00 0.40

– mild-moderate PAD – severe PAD If >1.30 = noncompressible artery -> needs to try toe-brachial index Exercise ABIs

–

If normal ABIs but high suspicion for PAD

–

If ABI decrease by 20% post-exercise, then patient has significant PAD Segmental Limb Pressure recordings

–

To locate affected region MRA vs CTA

–

To locate affected region

A 68-year-old man is evaluated for left calf pain that occurs after walking 2 to 3 blocks and is relieved with rest; he has had the pain for about 6 months. He has a history of coronary artery disease with depressed left ventricular systolic function (left ventricular ejection fraction, 30%) treated with coronary artery bypass grafting 2 years ago and subsequent implanted cardiac defibrillator placement for primary prevention purposes. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and is a prior cigarette smoker. His medications include atorvastatin, aspirin, metoprolol, and lisinopril. On physical examination, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min and regular, and respiration rate is 16/min. Peripheral pulses are diminished. There is no skin breakdown or ulceration and no abdominal or femoral bruits. Ankle-brachial index is 0.7 on the left and 1.0 on the right. Segmental plethysmography demonstrates a pressure drop of 20 mm Hg below the left knee.

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Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

1. Femoral-popliteal bypass 2. Medical treatment with cilostazol 3. Percutaneous intervention 4. Supervised exercise program

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PAD - Treatment

• •

If no lifestyle limiting symptoms:

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RF modification (LDL <100, statin, stop smoking)

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ASA, Bblocker

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Exercise

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Consider cilostasol if claudication (but not in CAD) If lifestyle limiting symptoms:

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Angioplasty (best for short segments of large calibur vessels)

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Bypass (best for distal, mutivessel occlusive disease)

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When was the last time a team entered the NCAA tournament with an undefeated record?

1. 2001

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2. 1991 3. 2005 4. 1995 5. 1985 6. 1984

A 72-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for acute severe pain during rest in the lower left leg that began 3 days ago. The patient has repeatedly used oxycodone/acetaminophen that he had at home for relief of pain. His pain is now much better, but he finds that he is having difficulty walking. He has had progressive exertional pain in the lower left leg over the past year. Five years ago, he had a left femoral popliteal bypass for occlusive peripheral arterial disease with distal ulceration. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He has a 50 pack-year smoking history. Current daily medications include aspirin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and simvastatin. On physical examination, the patient’s temperature is 37.8 °C (100.1 °F), blood pressure is 106/60 mm Hg, pulse is 100/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. The left lower extremity is pale and cool from the toes to the mid shin, and there is a small ulceration on the ball of the left foot. The left

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ultrasonography. Venous Doppler signals are audible. The left foot and calf feel stiff, and the

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patient can only weakly flex the foot. Toe movement on the left side is minimal, and sensation to light touch is absent. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

1. Emergent surgical revascularization 2. Intravenous heparin 3. Intra-arterial thrombolytic therapy 4. Prompt amputation

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Acute Limb Ischemia!!

• • •

Remember the 6 P’s!

Due to embolus or thrombosis = ACUTE SX Management:

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Class I: mod-severe claudication but NO rest pain

•

ASA, heparin, surgery consult

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Class II: PAIN AT REST

•

URGENT intervention; consider lytics

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Class III: irreversible disease (absent dopplers, profound anesthesia, paralysis)

•

Need amputation