Slide 1

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 2

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 3

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 4

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 5

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 6

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 7

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 8

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 9

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 10

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 11

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 12

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 13

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 14

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 15

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 16

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 17

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 18

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 19

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 20

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 21

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 22

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 23

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 24

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 25

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 26

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 27

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 28

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 29

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 30

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 31

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 32

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 33

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 34

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 35

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 36

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 37

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 38

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 39

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 40

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 41

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 42

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 43

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 44

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 45

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 46

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 47

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 48

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 49

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 50

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 51

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 52

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 53

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 54

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 55

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 56

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 57

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 58

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 59

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 60

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 61

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 62

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 63

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 64

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 65

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 66

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 67

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 68

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 69

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 70

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 71

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 72

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 73

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 74

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 75

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 76

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.


Slide 77

Review Chapters 1 - 3

Instrument Currency
• “To act as PIC of an aircraft on an IFR
flight plan, one must have logged (within
the preceding 6 months):
–
–
–
–

6 approaches
holding
intercepting and tracking navigation courses
or passed an IPC

Currency

3 approaches,
navigation, holding

Need IPC

Aeronautical Decision Making
•
•
•
•
•
•

D
E
C
I
D
E

etect a change
stimate what is needed
hoose a successful outcome
dentify actions required
o the necessary
valuate

Hazardous attitudes
• Anti-authority
– rules and procedures are unnecessary
• Macho
– best pilot
• Impulsivity
– first action that comes to mind

Hazardous Attitudes
• Invulnerability
– bulletproof
• Resignation
– What’s the use?

Vestibular Disorientation
•
•
•
•

Coriolis illusion(in turn move head)
Graveyard spiral
Leans
Somatogravic illusion (acceleration =
climb)
• Inversion illusion (climb to S&L=
backwards)

Disorientation
• To prevent disorientation, one must rely on
instruments, not body signals.

Hypoxia
• Hypoxic
– high altitudes
• Hypemic
– CO, anemia, smoking

• Stagnant
– high G’s

• Histotoxic
– alcohol, drugs

Hyperventilation
•
•
•
•

Drowsiness
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
Feelings of suffocation

Fundamental Skills




Cross Check
Instrument Interpretation
Aircraft Control

Fundamental Concepts
• Rigidity in Space - a wheel with a heavily
weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain
fixed in the plane in which it is spinning
• Precession - when an outside force is applied
the gyro responds as if the force had been
applied at a point 900 further around in the
direction of rotation

Instrument Checks
• With the power off, warning flags display
OFF indications
• Inclinometer full of fluid and ball at lowest
point
• Turn on master and listen for grinding noise
in electric gyros
• After starting check ammeter

Instrument Checks
• Listen for noise from vacuum gyros
• If you think you hear noise, shut off the
engine and listen to the gyros spin down
• It can take 5 minutes for the gyros to reach
full operating speed

Instrument Checks
• While taxing out, the turn coordinator and
heading indicator should indicate a turn in
the correct direction
• The ball should swing to the outside in turns
• Align the heading indicator with the
magnetic compass during runup and check
again before takeoff

Magnetic Compass
• Errors
– Variation - the angular difference between the
true and magnetic pole
– Deviation - errors due to magnetic interference
with the metal components of the aircraft
– Magnetic dip - the compass tries to point down
deep inside the earth

Pitot Static Instruments
• Airspeed Indicator
• Vertical Speed Indicator
• Altimeter

Types of Airspeeds
• Indicated - displays the speed of your plane. It
is the basis for determining your aircraft
performance
• Calibrated is indicated corrected for
installation and instrument error
• Equivalent airspeed is calibrated airspeed
corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a
particular altitude

Types of Airspeeds
• True Airspeed is the actual speed your
airplane moves through the air. The
calibrated airspeed corrected for density
altitude
• Mach is the ratio of the aircraft’s true speed
to the speed of sound

Types of Altitude
• Indicated - is what you read on the altimeter
• Pressure - is displayed when you have the
altimeter set to 29.92. It is the vertical distance
above the standard datum plane
• Density - pressure corrected for nonstandard
temperature

Types of Altitude
• True - is the actual height of an object above
mean sea level.
• Absolute - is the actual height of the aircraft
above the earth’s surface

System Errors
• Can be caused by blockage of the pitot tube,
static port or both
• Blockages can be caused by moisture, ice,
dirt or even insects
• Use pitot tube cover when parked
• Use pitot heat when flying in visible
moisture

Pitot Blockage
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole open
pressure in line to airspeed indicator drops
to zero, airspeed indicator indicates 0
• Ram air inlet clogged, drain hole clogged,
air trapped in line, airspeed indicator does
not react to changes in speed but altitude
like an altimeter

Static Blockage
• Airspeed indicator will continue to react to
changes in airspeed but they will not be
accurate
• Altimeter will freeze in place
• VSI will freeze at zero
• Use alternate static source or break glass in
VSI

VOR Receiver Checks


VOT
– 180o TO, 360o FROM; +/- 4o



VOR Ground Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 4o



VOR Airborne Checkpoint
– Indicated radial; +/- 6o
– Centerline of airway; +/- 6o



Dual VOR Check
– Within 4o

Using the VOR
• Basic VOR Indicator
–
–
–
–

each dot on CDI is 2o
full scale deflection is 10o
1 deg in 60 nm is 1 nm
OBS

• Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI
– incorporates HI, CDI, Glideslope
– makes easier to scan
– not reverse sensing except for using on BC

ADF Navigation








Ground based transmitter
Low/medium frequency (AM)
Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Not line of sight
No receiver checks
No flags - listen to Morse code

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.
B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to
the right.
C. The compass will remain on east for a short
time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to
the left from an east heading in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. The compass will indicate the approximate
correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
A. 135° through 225°.
B. 90° and 270°.
C. 180° and 0°.

7.4.8.8.8.A.1
I05
On what headings will the magnetic
compass read most accurately during a
level 360° turn, with a bank of
approximately 15°?
B. 90° and 270°.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
A. The airspeed indicator will show a
decrease with an increase in altitude.
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.
C. No airspeed indicator change will
occur during climbs or descents.

7.4.8.5.4.A.1
L57
What indication should a pilot observe if
an airspeed indicator ram air input and
drain hole are blocked?
B. The airspeed indicator will react as an
altimeter.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.
B. The indication would be in reverse of the
actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
C. The initial indication would be a climb, then
descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

7.4.8.7.9.A.1
I05
What would be the indication on the VSI during
entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level
flight if the static ports were iced over?
A. The VSI pointer would remain at zero
regardless of the actual rate of descent.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
A. Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the
current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should
correspond to the change in setting.
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C. Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With
current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to
an IFR flight?
B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.
The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
A. the field elevation.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. the current altimeter setting.

7.4.9.1.2.A.1
I04
The pressure altitude at a given location is
indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
B. 29.92" Hg.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
A. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter
setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then
set to 29.92" Hg.
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
C. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before
takeoff.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter
when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or
higher on a direct flight off airways?
B. Set the altimeter to the current reported
setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon
reaching 18,000 feet.
.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
A. When density altitude is higher than
indicated altitude.
B. In colder than standard air temperature.
C. In warmer than standard air temperature.

2.4.1.0.9.A.1
I22
Under what condition will true altitude be
lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter
setting of 29.92" Hg?
B. In colder than standard air temperature.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.
B. deflecting force developed from the
angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C. ability to resist precession 90° to any
applied force.

7.4.9.0.2.A.1
I04
One characteristic that a properly
functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
A. resistance to deflection of the spinning
wheel or disc.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during
warmup.
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.
C. The miniature airplane should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

What pretakeoff check should be made of
the attitude indicator in preparation for an
IFR flight?
B. The horizon bar should erect and
become stable within 5 minutes.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
A. show a slight climb and turn to the
right.
B. show a slight skid and climb to the
right.
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.9.0.1.A.1
I05
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right
and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and
level flight by visual reference, the
miniature aircraft will
C. show a slight climb and turn to the
left.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.
B. needle indication properly corresponds to
the angle of the wings or rotors with the
horizon.
C. ball will move freely from one end of the
tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

7.4.8.8.2.A.1
L59
Prior to starting an engine, you should check
the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
A. needle is approximately centered and the
tube is full of fluid.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B. Angle of bank.
C. Angle of bank and rate of turn.

7.4.8.3.9.A.1
I05
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn
coordinator directly display?
A. Rate of roll and rate of turn.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
A. Centerline dashes starting at the
threshold.
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding
portion of the runway.

5.4.7.9.4.A.1
J05
Which runway marking indicates a
displaced threshold on an instrument
runway?
B. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if
the runway is in sight.
C. start a climb to reach the proper
glidepath.

5.4.7.7.9.A.1
J03
If an approach is being made to a runway
that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all
the VASI lights appear red as the airplane
reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. level off momentarily to intercept the
proper approach path.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A. Three glidepaths, with the center path
indicated by a white light.
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.
C. Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

5.4.7.8.0.A.1
J03
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
B. One light projector with three colors:
red, green, and amber.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.
B. To provide the latest information on the
status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities
for scheduled broadcasts.
C. To issue notices for all airports and
navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A. To advise of changes in flight data which
affect instrument approach procedure (IAP),
aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior
to normal publication.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.
B. Read back the entire clearance as required
by regulation.
C. Read back should be unsolicited and
spontaneous to confirm that the pilot
understands all instructions.

What response is expected when ATC issues
an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back those parts containing altitude
assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or
more fixes which identify the initial route of
flight.
B. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number,
and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4.4.3.9.6.A.1
J14
Which clearance items are always given in an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
(Assume radar environment.)
C. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name,
Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.
B. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at
any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to
and including 6,000, but each change in altitude
must be reported to ATC.
C. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching
the IAF serving the destination airport, then
execute the published approach procedure.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance
which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any
altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
including 6,000.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.
B. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
C. When parallel runways are in use.

4.4.5.3.8.A.1
J13
When should pilots state their position
on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
A. When departing from a runway
intersection.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
A.
radar services are terminated
and you will be responsible for
position reports.
B.
you are still in radar contact,
but must make position reports.
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

Upon intercepting the assigned
radial, the controller advises you
that you are on the airway and to
"RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This
phrase means that
C.
you are to assume
responsibility for your own
navigation.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
A.
When the groundspeed
changes more than 5 knots.
B.
Any time the groundspeed
changes 10 MPH.
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

1.4.0.7.1.A.1
J15
For which speed variation
should you notify ATC?
C.
When the average true
airspeed changes 5 percent or
10 knots, whichever is
greater.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
A.
the minimum visibility
for VFR flight is 3 miles.
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.
C.
ATC controls only IFR
flights.

4.4.4.7.5.A.1
J07
Class G airspace is that
airspace where
B.
ATC does not control
air traffic.

MOAs are established to
A.
prohibit all civil
aircraft because of hazardous
or secret activities.
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.
C.
restrict civil aircraft
during periods of high
density training activities.

MOAs are established to
B.
separate certain
military activities from IFR
traffic.