APES Review

Transcript APES Review

APES

Matter is anything that A. Has mass and takes up space B. Gives off energy C. Is a solid at room temperature D. Cannot be chemically changed 2

Most plastics are classified as _________________ pollutants A. Degradable B. Biodegradable C. Nonpersistant D. Nondegradable E. Slowly degradable 3

A nuclear change in which two isotopes form a heavier nucleus is known as A. Nuclear fission B. Nuclear reaction C. Radioactive decay D. Nuclear fusion E. Critical mass 4

Natural capital consists of: A. Goods and services produced by natural means B. Goods and services produced by nature C. Goods and services produced using only natural ingredients 5

The economic theory that claims that the best way to alleviate poverty and to grow the economy is known as A. Trickle-down theory B. Narrowing the wealth gap C. Capitalism D. Social engineering 6

If the statute of limitations is cited as a basis for the dismissal of an environmental lawsuit, that means that: A. The law upon which the case was filed is no longer in effect.

B. The plaintiff was asking for more money than the law allows.

C. The defendant has gone out of business.

D. The problem that was the basis of the lawsuit has been solved.

E. The plaintiff waited too long to file the lawsuit.

Cradle-to-grave is the concept that companies can and should be held responsible for the harmful consequences of their products from manufacture to final disposal are covered under what environmental law?

A. Clean Air Act B. Superfund C. Toxic Substances Control Act D. Resource Conservation & Recovery Act E. Hazardous and Solid Wastes Act 8

Under the provisions of the Clean Air Act, priority pollutants are: A. Pollutants that do the most harm to the air quality.

B. Air pollutants that are most commonly generated C. The most toxic air pollutants D. Air pollutants from factories and hazardous waste sites E. Air pollutants from non-point sources 9

Nitrate is converted to nitrogen gas through the process of A. denitrification. B. nitrification. C. leaching. D. nitrogen fixation. E. assimilation.

Inorganic nitrogen-containing ions are converted into organic molecules through A. assimilation. B. leaching. C. nitrification. D. nitrogen fixation. E. denitrification.

Net primary productivity A. is usually reported as the energy output of an area of producers over a given time. B. is the rate at which producers manufacture chemical energy through photosynthesis. C. is the rate at which producers use chemical energy through respiration. D. is the energy input of an area of producers over a given time. E. is the rate of photosynthesis plus the rate of respiration.

Life on earth depends on interaction of gravity, the cycling of matter and A. the destruction of matter. B. the consumption of matter. C. one-way flow of energy. D. cycling of energy. E. one-way flow of matter.

The pyramid which best explains why there are typically only four to five links in a food chain is the pyramid of A. energy. B. biomass. C. productivity. D. matter. E. numbers.

The two ways in which humans have most interfered with the carbon cycle are A. removal of forests and aerobic respiration. B. burning fossil fuels and removal of forests and brush. C. respiration and removal of forests. D. respiration and photosynthesis. E. aerobic respiration and burning fossil fuels.

Humus is A. indicative of poor soils. B. poisonous to soil microorganisms. C. partially decomposed organic matter. D. freshly, fallen leaves. E. light colored or nearly white.

You read the data records of a field ecologist who reports the following varieties of species: beetles, spiders, grasshoppers, many insects and invertebrates, earthworms, prairie dogs, rabbits, squirrels, meadowlarks, coyotes, foxes, and hawks. You conclude that the field ecologist is located in a A. arctic tundra. B. desert. C. taiga. D. tropical grassland. E. temperate grassland 17

Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes? A. Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion. B. Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes. C. Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients. D. Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients. E. Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter. 18

Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes? A. annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm B. a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns C. clear boundaries between adjacent biomes D. vegetation demonstrating stratification E. cold winter months 19

The term upwelling refers to the movement of A. cool water from the Arctic toward the equator. B. cool nutrient-rich water from the bottom to the surface. C. warm nutrient-rich water from the bottom to the surface. D. warm water replacing cool water. E. warm surface water.

The rain shadow effect refers to A. wetter conditions on the leeward side of mountain ranges. B. drier conditions on the windward side of mountain ranges. C. more light on the leeward side of mountain ranges. D. more light on the windward side of mountain ranges. E. drier conditions on the leeward side of mountain ranges.

The main reason Polar Regions are cooler than the equator is because A. there is more ice at the poles. B. sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle. C. the poles are farther from the sun. D. the poles have a thicker atmosphere. E. the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun.

Which of the following ecosystems has the highest average net primary productivity?

A. open ocean B. agricultural land C. swamps and marshes D. lakes and streams E. temperate forest 23

Nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia through A. nitrogen fixation. B. leaching. C. nitrification. D. denitrification. E. assimilation.

If something is biodegradable, it A. cannot be broken down by any living processes. B. can be broken down by decomposers. C. can be broken down by heterotrophs. D. can be broken down by autotrophs. E. cannot be broken down by omnivores.

When organisms die, their nitrogenous organic compounds are converted to simpler inorganic compounds such as ammonia through A. nitrification. B. ammonification. C. denitrification. D. nitrogen fixation. E. leaching.

The hydrologic cycle is driven primarily by A. solar energy and gravity. B. solar energy and the moon. C. solar energy and mechanical energy. D. chemical energy from the moon.

E. mechanical and chemical energy.

Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest level of kilocalories per square meter per year?

A. lakes and streams B. agricultural land C. temperate forest D. tropical rain forest E. open ocean 28

Ammonium ions are converted to nitrite ions and nitrate ions through the process of A. nitrification. B. leaching. C. denitrification. D. assimilation. E. nitrogen fixation.

Photosynthesis A. yields glucose and carbon dioxide gas as products. B. produces carbon dioxide and oxygen gas. C. yields glucose and oxygen gas as products. D. requires the combustion of carbon. E. converts glucose into energy and water.

Plants of the arctic tundra are adapted to A. freezing temperatures, lack of sunlight, and constant high winds. B. freezing temperatures, lack of water, and lack of sunlight. C. moderate temperatures, lack of sunlight, and constant high winds. D. freezing temperatures, lack of water, and bright sunlight. E. freezing temperatures, lack of water, and variable winds.

Most of the wetlands that are lost are used for A. mining. B. recreation. C. forestry. D. urban development. E. agriculture.

In lakes, the nutrient-rich water near the shore is part of the A. limnetic zone. B. benthic zone. C. profundal zone. D. abyssal zone. E. littoral zone.

Estuaries exhibit A. constant temperature. B. variable temperature and constant salinity. C. constant temperature and salinity. D. variable temperature and salinity. E. constant temperature and variable salinity.

During an El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO), A. surface water along the South and North American coasts becomes cooler. B. upwellings of cold, nutrient-rich water are suppressed. C. prevailing easterly winds weaken. D. upwellings of cold, nutrient-rich water are increased. E. upwellings of warm, nutrient-poor water are suppressed.

Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude because A. descending air masses tend to be cool and dry. B. trade winds have a little moisture. C. water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land. D. ascending air tends to be moist.

E. these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth. 36

Climate is the general pattern of weather over a period of at least A. 30 years. B. 20 years. C. 50 years. D. 10 years. E. 40 years.

An ecologist would expect a temperate lake to demonstrate overturns in A. fall and winter. B. fall and summer. C. spring and summer. D. spring and fall. E. spring and winter.

Plants and trees can be cut down and replanted. These resources are therefore considered to be A. Renewable resources B. Nonrenewable resources C. Perpetual D. Exhaustible resources E. Sustainable 39

An ecological footprint is defined as A. The impact an individual may have on a given area of land B. The amount of biologically productive land and water needed to sustain an individual within a population C. The carrying capacity of the earth for a given population D. The amount of land and water that has been converted to nonproductive use within a given geographical region 40

Point pollution sources A. Can usually be identified within a given area B. Can never be located C. Are dispersed and difficult to identify D. Are much more expensive to control than nonpoint sources E. Cannot be controlled 41

A __________________ feedback loop causes a system to change further in the same direction.

A. Negative B. Corrective C. Nominal D. Positive E. Polarized 42

Changes in the gene pools of symbiotic species over time is known as A. Mutation B. Hybridization C. Coevolution D. Natural selection E. Genetic shift 43

The realized niche of a species is ______________ its fundamental niche.

A. The same as B. Larger than C. Not effected by D. Smaller than E. Independent from 44

Broad niches are characteristic of A. Generalist species B. Extinct species C. Natural species D. Competitive species E. Specialist species 45

The alteration of an organism’s genetic material through adding, deleting, or changing segments of DNA is known as A. Genetic engineering B. Cloning C. Transgenic organisms D. Bioengineering E. Artificial selection 46

Which habitat has the highest number of species?

A. Tropical rainforest B. Temperate forest C. Short-grass prairie D. Savannah E. Boreal forest 47

Habitat fragmentation that increases the edge area around a community can A. Make species less vulnerable to fi B. Allow species to increase their genetic variation C. Increase the propagule pressure of a community D. Make species less vulnerable to predators E. Create barriers that prevent species from colonizing new areas 48

Species richness is defined as A. The abundance of individuals within a species B. The number of different species within a community C. The amount of food types a species consumes D. The number of niches a species occupies E. The diversity of species within a community 49

A species that plays a major role in shaping communities by creating and enhancing habitat is a A. Keystone species B. Invasive species C. Charismatic species D. Indicator species E. Foundation species 50

When lions and leopards live in the same area, lions take mostly larger animals as prey and leopards take smaller ones to avoid direct competition. This is referred to as A. Resource partitioning B. Symbiosis C. Commensalism D. Mutualism E. Predator-prey competition 51

The fact that a community consists of an ever-changing mosaic of vegetation patches at different stages of succession conflicts with the idea of a A. Balance of nature B. Foundation species C. Pioneer species D. Late successional species E. Climax community 52

Which of the following would be most vulnerable to extinction? A. a mold that attacks wheat in the field B. an orchid endemic to an area where logging is occurring C. a healthy plant, such as a pine tree, that completely dominates its native environment D. a migratory flock of warblers stopping along its winter route to feed on local resources that are now gone and replaced by a suburb E. a moth, brought to the United States for silk production, escaping into the wild and becoming established 53

Humans have dramatically altered the rate of nitrogen fixation into forms usable by autotrophs ________. A. because of the erosion of farmlands through poor agricultural practices B. due to the burning of fossil fuels to meet our energy needs C. as we produce synthetic fertilizers and apply them to crops, lawns, and parks D. by using antibiotics to reduce the numbers of denitrifying bacteria E. by selectively removing leguminous plants 54

You are studying species diversity in the Caribbean islands. Which island would you expect to have the most number of species? A. a large island near the mainland B. a medium-sized island is the middle of an island chain C. a medium-sized island near the mainland D. a large island far removed from other sites E. a small island far removed from other sites 55

CITES is A. a treaty controlling the international trade in endangered species. B. a set of regulations controlling the introduction of exotic species. C. a pact that supports critical ecosystems that support wildlife. D. an international organization dedicated to the preservation of endangered species. E. an American law that catalogues all known endangered species and uses Custom Agents to confiscate any that come into the country 56

The resilience of a community is defined as A. The ability of the community to repair damage after a moderate disturbance B. The ability of a community to resist being disturbed C. The ability of a community to keep its population size limited by its resources D. The ability of a community to tolerate exponential population growth E. The ability of a community to alter its successional processes 57

Why do communities with higher biodiversity also have higher net primary productivity?

A. They are more resistant to being disturbed B. They are able to maintain population sizes of component species C. Each species is able to exploit a different portion of the available resources D. These communities have lower numbers of herbivores E. Each species is able to compete more effectively 58

Why are some animals, such as frogs, so brightly colored?

A. The colors are used for camouflage in the tropical forests B. The colors are used to attract mates C. The colors are used for parental identification by offspring D. The colors are used to startle competitors E. The colors are used to warn predators that the frogs are toxic 59

The relationship between flowering plants and bees is best described as __.

A. predation B. parasitism C. herbivory D. mutualism E. competition 60

The relationship between flowering plants and caterpillars is best described as _______.

A. amensalism B. parasitism C. herbivory D. mutualism E. commensalism 61

The IUCN's Red List is ________. A. a list of unidentified species B. an identification list of known species C. an updated list of species facing unusually high risk of extinction D. a scorecard of international failures at conservation E. a list of ecologically damaged ecosystems 62

Bullfrog tadpoles are often sold as fish bait, even in areas where they do not occur naturally. When people buy 10 of them and don't use them all, they often dump the remainder into the lake or river. This is an example of ________. A. extermination B. overharvesting of species from the wild C. introduced species D. inbreeding E. habitat destruction 63

Biodiversity enhances food security because it ________. A. increases the number of available pathogens B. decreases the number of predators C. means that there is genetic uniformity D. protects crops against losses due to disease E. reduces the number of pollinators 64

Which of the following are facing the highest rates of extinction?

A. birds in general B. plants in general C. K-strategists D. r-strategists in general E. insects in general 65

The species most often vulnerable to human impact is the ________.

A. keystone species B. decomposer C. competitive species D. producer E. top predator 66

The country of Belize depends on lobster for a major portion of its income, along with fishing and tourism. Over the past 30 years the average size of an individual lobster has dropped, even as increasing numbers of Belizeans buy boats, build lobster traps, and enter the industry. This is an example of ________. A. habitat alteration B. effects of pollution C. overharvesting D. results of an invasive species E. problems with monoculture 67

Most of the world's forests occur as ________. A. temperate rainforest B. chaparral C. tropical dry forest D. temperate deciduous forest E. taiga and rainforest 68

Forests reach their greatest ecological complexity when ________. A. they are frequently logged using clear-cutting B. in the early stages of recovering from logging C. shrubs and other ground cover plants are absent D. they are frequently burned E. they are mature and exhibit a multi level canopy 69

The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) ________. A. altered the amount of chemicals allowed in water as a result of industrial pollution B. put all federal land under stringent environmental protection C. was signed into law by Bill Clinton D. requires compensation to be given to anyone harmed by deliberate pollution from any business or corporate entity E. required environmental impact statements for any projects funded by the U.S. government 70

When natural selection occurs, what is the key factor that will determine which individuals will survive and pass on the beneficial traits?

A. The traits that are more useful to humans will be passed on B. Size; the larger the animal or plant, the more likely it will survive C. How large the initial population is D. The environment will determine which traits are most beneficial E. Natural selection is random and occurs by chance

If a population of 100 birds increases to 120 birds the following year, r = _____. A. 0. 16 B. 0. 20 C. 1. 2 D. 2 E. 20

Population A I. Is likely to have a higher level of education than population B II. Is likely to have had a recent decline in infant mortality III. Is likely to be poorer than population B A. I B. III C. I and II D. II and III E. I, II, and III

A population of rabbits, introduced to an island, has rapid growth for a few years; then its growth slows. The population becomes stable because A. the carrying capacity has been reached. B. environmental resistance declines. C. immigration is reduced. D. r declines. E. Bergman’s Principle takes effect.

Rapidly growing countries have an age structure that A. forms an inverted pyramid. B. has a broad-based pyramid. C. shows little variation in population by age. D. has a large postreproductive population.

Countries that have achieved ZPG have an age structure that A. forms an inverted pyramid. B. has a broad-based pyramid. C. shows little variation in population by age. D. has a large prereproductive population. E. has a large reproductive population.

According to the theory of demographic transition, rapid growth occurs during phase A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. E. 5.

Two useful indicators of overall health in a country or region are A. birth rate and death rate. B. replacement-level fertility rate and total fertility rate. C. life expectancy and infant mortality rate. D. life expectancy and death rate. E. population growth rate.

Approximately how many females are between the ages of 50 and 59?

A. 500,000 B. 5,000,000 C. 20,000,000 D. 30,000,000 E. 50,000,000

The crude birth rate is the number of live births per ____ persons in a given year. A. 50 B. 100 C. 500 D. 1,000 E. 10,000

Which of the following best describes the survivorship curve you would expect to find for a Kangaroo?

A. late loss B. constant loss C. early loss D. no loss

Which of the following factors leads to an increase in biotic potential?

A. too much or too little light B. low reproductive rate C. too many competitors D. optimal level of critical nutrients E. specialized niche

Worldwide, the largest density dependent cause of death is A. natural disaster. B. malnutrition. C. heart disease. D. infectious disease. E. car accidents.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 3.5% would double in A. 7 years B. 10 years C. 15 years D. 17 years E. 20 years

According to the theory of demographic transition, birth rates make the most significant decline during phase A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. E. 5.

Developing countries tend to have a(n) ____ age structure diagram. A. rectangular-shaped B. inverted triangle C. pyramid-shaped D. square E. round

To determine the number of individuals that will be added to a population in a specified time we multiply the growth rate (r) by the A. biotic potential. B. original population size. C. environmental resistance. D. final population size. E. number of immigrants.

The biologist who studies interactions at the “community” level investigates interactions between A. organisms of one species B. populations of more than one species. C. animals of one species. D. social animals (like insects). E. ecosystems.

According to the theory of demographic transition, the highest birth rates and death rates are likely to occur during phase A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. E. 5.

Approximately how many males are under the age of 10?

A. 130,000,000 B. 110,000,000 C. 20,000,000 D. 15,000,000 E. 450,000

Currently, most of the US population lives in ____ areas.

A. Rural B. Suburban C. Exurban D. Urban E. Superurban

The major component of MSW in the United States is A. paper B. yard trimmings C. metal D. plastic E. wood

An environmental cost of sending computers to landfills is A. there is inadequate landfill space in the United States for computers B. it is less expensive to send computers to the landfill than to recycle them C. children separate the components of the disposed of computers D. the disposed computers contain toxic metals that can end up in the environment E. landfill standards keep the toxic compounds in the computers from leaching into the water table

Which of the following is/are environmental benefit/s of recycling aluminum?

I. Reduces the effects on the land from mining II. Reduces the effects of leaching in landfills III. Reduces the energy required to transport and process mined ore A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II, and III

Which of the following is least likely to be a danger associated with leachate from a sanitary landfill?

A. The leachate can leak into nearby soils B. The leachate can leak into groundwater C. The leachate can contain toxic metal compounds D. The leachate can be at a high temperature E. The leachate can be classified as toxic waste and have to be treated accordingly

Byproducts of waste incineration include I. Waste heat II. Fly ash (residues from combustion) III. Increase in rodent population A. I D. I and III B. II C. I and II E. I, II, and III

Given the following waste management options, which is the optimal choice for the environment?

A. Production of less waste material B. Depositing waste in a landfill C. Depositing waste in an open pit in the ground D. Incineration of waste E. Hazardous waste treatment

United States legislation that directly addresses the handling of hazardous waste includes: I. Clean Air Act II. RCRA III. CERCLA A. I only D. II and III only B. II only C. I and III only E. I, II, and III

What law was implemented in reaction to Love Canal?

A. RCRA B. Toxic Substances Control Act C. CERCLA D. The Lacey Act E. Endangered Species Act

The Superfund program pays A. to clean up inactive or abandoned hazardous-waste dump sites. B. to monitor hazardous wastes. C. for testing for lead in paint, water, and air samples. D. the doctors' bills and lawyers' fees for pollution events.

E. for repairing Clark Kent’s cape

Of the following materials, the most difficult to recycle is A. glass. B. plastic. C. paper. D. aluminum. E. cardboard.

Of the following methods of reducing hazardous wastes, the most desirable is A. recycling and reusing hazardous wastes. B. substitution of safer products that don't produce hazardous wastes. C. conversion into less hazardous and nonhazardous materials. D. incineration. E. perpetual storage.

Which of the following produces the loudest sound?

A. jackhammer B. chain saw C. rock music D. military rifle E. truck

The main advantage of rapid rail over mass transit rail is that rapid rail: A. it is more energy efficient B. it produces less air pollution C. it requires less land area D. it must operate along heavily used routes to be profitable E. it is ideal for trips of 200-1,000 kilometers

Which of the five Rs is the least desirable from an environmental standpoint?

A. Refuse B. Reduce C. Reuse D. Repurpose E. Recycle

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