Transcript Document 7359929

Proficiency Review
Questions 1-60
1.
Why do atoms bond to one another?
a.
b.
c.
d.
to gain an octet of electrons
to become happy atoms
to gain kinetic energy
to become lower in potential energy
1.
Why do atoms bond to one another?
a. to gain an octet of electrons. This only happens in
covalent bonding
b. to become happy atoms. It has not been proven that
atoms have emotions
c. to gain kinetic energy. A bond is formed because of a
very large decrease in the kinetic energy due to the
molecular orbital having a significantly decreased
gradient in the bond region.
d. to become lower in potential energy. By decreasing
its potential energy an atom creates a more stable
arrangement of matter.
2. Which equation is not consistent with
the law of conservation of mass?
a.
b.
c.
d.
S + O2  SO2
KClO3  KCl + O2
CaCO3  CaO + CO2
Ca + S  CaS
2.
Which equation is not consistent with the law of
conservation of mass?
a. S + O2  SO2 This has equal numbers of each
atom on each side of the equation.
b. KClO3  KCl + O2 The number of Oxygen
atoms on each side of the equation is different.
c. CaCO3  CaO + CO2 This has equal numbers
of each atom on each side of the equation.
d. Ca + S  CaS This has equal numbers of each
atom on each side of the equation.
3.
Nuclear fission and nuclear
fusion reactions cause
a. atomic nuclei to change.
b. electrons to release large
amounts of energy.
c. protons and electrons to split.
d. neutrons and electrons to
fuse.
3.
Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion reactions cause
a. atomic nuclei to change. Fusion is when the nuclei of
two small atoms join to form a larger nucleus;
Fission is when one large atomic nucleus splits into
two or more smaller nuclei.
b. electrons to release large amounts of energy. Both
process deal with the nucleus of an atom and not the
surround electrons.
c. protons and electrons to split. Electrons cannot be
broken down into smaller particles.
d. neutrons and electrons to fuse. Fission is when nuclei
break apart so fusion is impossible here.
4.
In an isotope for a
particular element,
a. the number of
neutrons vary.
b. the numbers of
electrons vary.
c. the number of
protons vary.
d. radioactivity is
always emitted.
4. In an isotope for a particular element,
a. the number of neutrons vary. This is TRUE; the
different number of neutrons causes isotopes of the
same element to have different mass numbers.
b. the numbers of electrons vary. The number of
electrons does not affect differences between
isotopes of same element.
c. the number of protons vary. A change in the number
of protons would change the identity of the element
in question.
d. radioactivity is always emitted. Only unstable atoms
are capable of giving off radioactive energy. Not all
isotopes are unstable.
5. What type of attractive force is found between
atoms that are bonded to one another?
a.
b.
c.
d.
electrostatic
magnetic
gravitational
nuclear
5. What type of attractive force is found between atoms
that are bonded to one another?
a. electrostatic This is the force of attraction between an
electron and the nucleus of an atom. When electrons
of one atom are more strongly attracted to the
nucleus of another atom it cause the two atoms to
come together in a chemical bond.
b. magnetic This is a force that is caused by a magnetic
field and will be exerted on any nearby charged
particle.
c. gravitational This is the force shared between the
masses of two bodies.
d. nuclear This is the force of attraction between
protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
6. A student hits a
hockey puck which
slides across a frozen
lake. The force
required to keep the
puck sliding at a
constant velocity
across the ice is:
a. zero Newton’s.
b. equal to the weight of the puck.
c. the weight of the puck divided by
the mass of the puck.
d. the mass of the puck multiplied by
the weight of the puck.
6. A student hits a hockey puck which
slides across a frozen lake. The force
required to keep the puck sliding at a
constant velocity across the ice is:
a. zero Newton’s. It is the law of inertia
(Newton’s first law) an object in motion
stays in motion unless acted on by an
outside force and ice is nearly frictionless
b. equal to the weight of the puck. does
not need a force to keep in motion
c. the weight of the puck divided by the
mass of the puck. Does not follow
Newton’s second law.
d. the mass of the puck multiplied by the
weight of the puck. Does not follow F=mg
7. A wave is transporting energy
from left to right. The particles of
the medium are moving back and
forth in a leftward and rightward
direction. Which type of wave is
this?
a. gravitational
b. electromagnetic
c. transverse
d. longitudinal
7. A wave is transporting energy from left to right.
The particles of the medium are moving back and
forth in a leftward and rightward direction. Which
type of wave is this?
a. gravitational This is an example of a transverse
wave.
b. electromagnetic A transverse wave that does
not require a medium.
c. transverse Particles move up and down as
energy moves to the right.
d. longitudinal A longitudinal wave: particles
moves back and forth in a leftward and rightward
direction parallel to the direction of the energy
8.Each figure below shows a force measured
in Newtons pushing on a block. If there are
no other forces pushing on the block, in
which case is the acceleration of the block
greatest?
a.
c.
b.
d.
8. Each figure below shows a force measured
in Newtons pushing on a block. If there are
no other forces pushing on the block, in
which case is the acceleration of the block
greatest?
This question relates to Newton’s second law of motion.
a.
c.
1 Newton is less than
4 kilograms.
They are equal, they cancel each other
so there would be no movement.
b.
The net force is greater.
d.
They are equal, they cancel each other
so there would be no movement.
9. A person produces two sound
waves with a flute, one
immediately after the other.
Both sound waves have the
same pitch, but the second one
is louder. Which of the
following properties is greater
for the second sound wave?
a. Frequency
b. Amplitude
c. Wavelength
d. Speed in air
9. A person produces two sound waves
with a flute, one immediately after the
other. Both sound waves have the same
pitch, but the second one is louder.
Which of the following properties is
greater for the second sound wave?
a. Frequency Relates to pitch not loudness.
b. Amplitude Loudness relates to amplitude of a
sound wave.
c. Wavelength Relates to the distance between
repeating units.
d. Speed in air Relates to how much distance a
wave travels in a given amount of time.
10. Air in the atmosphere continuously moves by
convection. At the equator, air rises; at
the poles it sinks. This occurs because
a. the Earth’s ozone layer is thinner at the
equator than at the poles.
b. the Earth’s magnetic field is stronger
at the poles than at the equator.
c. warm air can hold less water
vapor than can cold air.
d. warm air is less dense than cold air.
10. Air in the atmosphere continuously moves by
convection. At the equator, air rises; at the poles it
sinks. This occurs because
a. the Earth’s ozone layer is thinner at the equator than
at the poles.
This statement is false
b. the Earth’s magnetic field is stronger at the poles
than at the equator.
Magnetic fields are not related to convection.
c. warm air can hold less water vapor than can cold air.
This statement is false
d. warm air is less dense than cold air.
The warmer air expands becoming less dense than the
cooler air around it. The cooler air, which now has
greater density, moves toward the ground.
11. Which information indicates that new seafloor rock is
forming along the mid-ocean ridge and then moving
horizontally away from the ridge?
a. Most volcanoes are located under ocean water.
b. Paleomagnetic studies of the ocean floor demonstrate
that the orientation of Earth’s magnetic field has
remained constant.
c. Fossils of marine organisms can be found at high
elevations.
d. The age of the seafloor rock increases as the distance
from the mid-ocean ridge increases.
11. Which information indicates that new seafloor rock is
forming along the mid-ocean ridge and then moving
horizontally away from the ridge?
a. Most volcanoes are located under ocean water.
Volcanoes are the results of hot spots in the middle of a
tectonic plate, or where subduction occurs between two
tectonic plates.
b. Paleomagnetic studies of the ocean floor demonstrate
that the orientation of Earth’s magnetic field has
remained constant.
This statement is false. The magnetic field goes through
a cycle.
c. Fossils of marine organisms can be found at high
elevations.
High elevations would be vertical, the question asks
about horizontal
d. The age of the seafloor rock increases as the distance
from the mid-ocean ridge increases.
As new rock forms along the ridge, it pushes the older
rock out.
12. Which of the following determines most
characteristics and future events of a star’s
existence?
a. size (diameter)
b. temperature
c. color
d. mass
12. Which of the following determines most characteristics and
future events of a star’s existence?
a. size (diameter)
Size does not always relate to mass, could have a large diameter,
but be less dense.
b. temperature
Temperature is related to the age of the star.
c. color
Color is related to temperature; hot stars are younger and burn
blue; cooler, younger stars burn red.
d. mass
Thermonuclear fusion occurs at a faster rate in massive stars, thus
large stars use all of their fuel in a shorter length of time. The mass
of a star determines its fate in the life cycle of a star.
13. Which of the following best describes
the expansion of the universe?
a. Expansion involves the spreading of
matter into infinite and empty space.
b. As space expands, matter spreads out
to fill up the empty space.
c. As space expands, the empty space
between matter increases.
d. As space expands, matter
continually is created to fill
that space.
13. Which of the following best describes the
expansion of the universe?
a. Expansion involves the spreading of matter
into infinite and empty space.
Matter is not spreading out.
b. As space expands, matter spreads out to fill
up the empty space.
Matter is not spreading out.
c. As space expands, the empty space between
matter increases.
The red shift shows us the distant galaxies
are moving away from Earth.
d. As space expands, matter continually is
created to fill that space.
Not true due to the Law of Conservation of
Matter.
14. Which of the following is the best description of
the Big Bang Theory?
a. The Big Bang Theory is the scientific
explanation of how the Sun, Earth and the rest
of the solar system were created at the
beginning of time.
b. The Big Bang Theory states that pre-existing
matter was compacted into a hot and dense for
and suddenly exploded into infinite, empty space.
c. The Big Bang Theory is just one of the ideas about
the universe’s origin, many of which are equally
respected by the scientific community.
d. The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model about
the universe’s origin and is supported by
observations of the universe’s expansion.
14. Which of the following is the best description of
the Big Bang Theory?
a. The Big Bang Theory is the scientific explanation
of how the Sun, Earth and the rest of the solar
system were created at the beginning of time.
The Solar System is believed to have formed according
the Nebular Hypothesis.
b. The Big Bang Theory states that pre-existing
matter was compacted into a hot and dense for and
suddenly exploded into infinite, empty space.
Answer D is better because it has supporting
observations
c. The Big Bang Theory is just one of the ideas about
the universe’s origin, many of which are equally
respected by the scientific community.
False, the Big Bang Theory is the most widely accepted.
d. The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model about
the universe’s origin and is supported by
observations of the universe’s expansion.
It is the prevailing model, and Edwin Hubble found
experimental evidence that distant galaxies are moving
away from Earth as seen with the Red Shift.
15. Earth’s seasons are the result of
a. the greenhouse effect, where the atmosphere
is thicker in the summer and thinner in the
winter.
b. solar flares, which occur more frequently in the
summer than in the winter.
c. its elliptical orbit, causing Earth to be closer to
the Sun in the summer and farther in the winter.
d. earth’s tilt, causing the number of daylight
hours to decrease from summer to winter.
15. Earth’s seasons are the result of
a. the greenhouse effect, where the atmosphere is thicker
in the summer and thinner in the winter.
This would effect climate all year, not just seasons.
b. solar flares, which occur more frequently in the summer
than in the winter.
Solar flares do not effect seasons.
c. its elliptical orbit, causing Earth to be closer to the Sun
in the summer and farther in the winter.
Earth is actually closer to the sun during winter
d. Earth’s tilt, causing the number of daylight hours to
decrease from summer to winter.
Because of the tilt, the pole that points towards the sun experiences
summer. This means less sunlight gets scattered before reaching the
ground because it has less distance to travel through the atmosphere.
In addition, the high sun angle produces long days. The pole that
points away from the sun experiences winter, which has shorter days.
16. Which of the following is (are) important
concepts(s) in Darwin’s theory of natural
selection?
I. Species do not change over time.
II. There is variability of characteristics within a
population of organisms.
III. A single organism can acquire traits over their
lifetimes that are then passed to its offspring.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
16. Which of the following is (are) important
concepts (s) in Darwin’s theory of natural
selection?
I. Species do not change over time.
Species do change over time.
II. There is variability of characteristics within a
population of organisms. True
III. A single organism can acquire traits over
their lifetimes that are then passed to
its offspring.
True
a. I only Not true.
b. II only
True, but so is III.
c. I and II only
Statement I is not true.
d. II and III only
Both of these statements
are true.
17. Which of the following is NOT a structural
difference between RNA and DNA?
a. A DNA molecule has two strands, while
RNA has one strand.
b. DNA contains the base thymine, while RNA
contains the base uracil.
c. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in
RNA it is ribose.
d. Because of their sizes DNA can leave the
nucleus and RNA cannot.
17. Which of the following is NOT a structural difference between
RNA and DNA?
a. A DNA molecule has two strands, while RNA has one strand.
True Statement.
b. DNA contains the base thymine, while RNA contains the
base uracil.
True Statement.
c. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in RNA it is ribose.
True Statement.
d. Because of their sizes DNA can leave the nucleus and RNA
cannot. Due to its size, DNA cannot leave the nucleus but
RNA can.
18. Which organelle is involved in cellular
respiration in both animal AND plant
cells?
a. Nucleus
b. Chloroplasts
c. Mitochondria
d. Vacuole
18. Which organelle is involved in cellular
respiration in both animal AND plant cells?
a. Nucleus Contains DNA and manages the
cell’s functions.
b. Chloroplasts Found in plants only.
c. Mitochondria Sight of cellular respiration in
both animals and plants.
d. Vacuole Used to store
nutrients not for respiration.
19. Which of the following
characteristics of rocks can be caused
by the slow cooling of magma?
A
B
C
D
large crystals
colorful grains
smooth cover
symmetrical shape
19. Which of the following
characteristics of rocks can
be caused by the slow
cooling of magma?
A. large crystals - Slow cooling allows the crystals to
form more completely before solidifying.
Not B. colorful grains - Many rocks have colorful grains, but
the color is a function of the elements included.
Not C. smooth cover - Smoothness is common, but it is a
product of weathering and/or crystal shape.
Not D. symmetrical shape - Symmetry, like other traits, is
mostly the produce of the type of minerals in the rock.
20. A law is an explanation of scientific
phenomenon that is
A.
B.
C.
D.
largely accepted by scientists.
based on observations.
supported by most scientific data.
proven and is without exception.
20. A law is an explanation
of scientific phenomenon
that is
Not A. Laws are completely accepted as fact.
Not B. Laws are based on mathematical proof,
not observations.
Not C. The option allows for some data that is not supported.
D. Option D completes the definition of a “law”.
21. After data is gathered from an
experiment, doing which of these will
most help make results more reliable?
A. asking the teacher to
check data
B. changing the variables for
another experiment
C. repeating the experiment
for additional data
D. reporting the information
on a table
21. After data is gathered
from an experiment, doing
which of these will most help
make results more reliable?
Not A. The teacher will have nothing
to add to the validity to the
numbers.
Not B. Changing variables compromises the data.
C. Reliability is dependant on repeatability.
Not D. Presentation of the report does not affect reliability.
22. Light is best refracted by
A.
B.
C.
D.
mirrors
wood
glass
metal
22. Light is best refracted by
Not A. Mirrors typically reflect, not
refract, light.
Not B. Wood is opaque; therefore, it cannot refract
light.
C. Glass is a medium with a different density than
air. Glass is translucent enough to have light
pass through.
Not D. Metal is opaque; therefore, it cannot refract light.
23. Chemical reaction rates can
most effectively be increased by
A.
B.
C.
D.
decreasing reactant particle size
increasing volume of the container
decreasing temperature
increasing the number of reactants
23. Chemical reaction rates
can most effectively be
increase by
A. Decreasing particle size increases
the surface area expose for
reaction.
Not B. Increasing volume may cause reactants to
collide less frequently and slow rate of reaction.
Not C. Decreasing temperature reduces the rate of
particle collision.
Not D. Adding reactants may cause competitive inhibition of
reaction, decreasing the reaction rate.
24. Which of these items can be
best used as in inclined plane?
A.
B.
C.
D.
wheelbarrow
tennis racquet
door knob
staircase
24. Which of these items can
be best used as in inclined
plane?
Not A. The handles work as a lever and the
wheel and axle helps with movement.
Not B. The tennis racquet adds mechanical advantage
because of increased centripetal force. It is
impractical to use a racquet as an inclined plane.
Not C. The doorknob has a wheel and axle element
with the locking mechanism. The knob itself acts as
a lever.
D. The staircase can be used to move objects
vertically.
25. A mutation in which of these
types of cells will affect offspring
characteristics?
A.
B.
C.
D.
skin
lung
gland
gamete
25. A mutation in which of
these types of cells will affect
offspring characteristics?
Not A. Mutation to skin cells may cause
discoloration or cancer, but it will not
affect fertility or offspring characteristics.
Not B. Mutation in lung cells may cause cancer or
other dysfunction of the lung, but it will not affect
offspring.
Not C. Mutation to glands will affect hormonal and
overall chemical balance, but it will not affect
offspring.
D. Since gametes are the cells that unite to
form zygotes, changes to them will affect
gene expression in offspring.
26. Which of these molecules is
most important for the
production of ATP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
glucose
salt
lipid
peroxide
26. Which of these
molecules is most important
for the production of ATP?
A. Before ATP can be made during the Krebs
Cycle, glucose is converted pyruvate.
Not B. Salt is important for water balance in
cells, but it is not involved in ATP
production.
Not C. Lipid molecules can be converted into usable
energy forms, but all materials need to be
converted to glucose before glycolysis can occur.
Not D. Peroxide is not involved in ATP production.
27. Bone is to chicken as
cartilage is to
A.
B.
C.
D.
shark
wolf
clam
worm
27. Bone is to chicken as
cartilage is to
A. The analogy has to do with skeletal system in the
animal. Chickens have bones and sharks have a
cartilaginous skeleton. Even though this item is
relatively simple, it requires the student to recognize
the relationship in the analogy and how to properly
complete it.
Not B. Wolves, like chickens, also have a bony skeleton.
Not C. Clams have an exoskeleton.
Not D. Worms do not have a skeletal system.
28. The forces that form folded
mountains are considered to be
constructive because of the forces
caused
A.
B.
C.
D.
irregular shaping of a landform.
other landforms to move closer together.
a new landform.
a climate change because of the land form.
28. The forces that form
folded mountains are
considered to be
constructive because of the
forces caused
Not A. Irregular shaping is caused by
weathering and erosion.
Not B. Landforms do not move closer to each other as
a result of constructive forces.
C. The stem and option C paraphrase the definition
of a “constructive force”.
Not D. Lithosphere activity may cause changes to area
climate, but it is not part of the definition of “constructive
forces”.
29. The best method for
determining how long
ago organisms lived is
A. calculate the fossil’s density.
B. compare fossil appearance to modern
organisms.
C. measure how deep fossils are buried.
D. use radiocarbon dating on fossils..
29. The best method for
determining how long ago
organisms lived is
Not A. Calculating density will provide a number,
but give no information regarding age.
Not B. Comparing appearance can give evolutionary
clues, but it will not provide quantity of years. Many
surviving animals look very “pre-historic.”
Not C. Measuring depth can give insight to relative
age, but it is not a quantifiable measurement.
Depth is also dependent on Earth’s movements.
D. Radiocarbon dating will give a
measurement based on decomposition of
carbon atoms. This is the most accurate
method used.
30. Radium, a radioactive element,
decays over time. How much would
remain of 20 grams of radium after two
half-lives have passed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0 grams
5 grams
7 grams
10 grams
Half-life decay =
Period of time a radioactive
substance decays …
½ is gone each half-life
NOT A. A small amount of
radioactivity would still be left after 10 half-lives
B. 5 grams is correct
SO……..one half-life leaves 10 grams
…a second half-life leaves 5 grams
NOT C. 7 grams would be left between
one and two half-lives
NOT D. 10 grams would be left after
one half-life
31. Emily and Sarah observed that the
goldfish in their classroom breathed more
frequently when the room was warm. What
equipment would the girls need to conduct
an experiment that would verify their
observations?
A. balance, beakers, thermometers
B. thermometers, stopwatch, notebook
C. stopwatch, thermometer, balance
D. balance, stopwatch, notebook
31. Emily and Sarah observed that the goldfish
in their classroom breathed more frequently
when the room was warm. What equipment
would the girls need to conduct an
experiment that would verify their
observations?
A. balance, beakers, thermometers
Incorrect. This experiment does not need a
balance. Balances measure mass and that
is not required for this experiment.
B. thermometers, stopwatch, notebook
Correct. The students need a thermometer
to measure the water temperature, a
stopwatch to time the breathing frequency,
and a notebook to record their data.
C. stopwatch, thermometer, balance
Incorrect. Do not need a balance.
D. balance, stopwatch, notebook
Incorrect. Do not need a balance.
32. One characteristic of all living things is
that they
A. have eyes.
B. have legs.
C. inhale and exhale.
D. eliminate waste products.
32. One characteristic of all living things is that they
A. have eyes.
Incorrect. Not all living organisms have eyes for
example bacteria and fungi
B. have legs.
Incorrect. Not all living organisms have legs for
example protists and plants
C. inhale and exhale.
Incorrect. Not all living organisms have the ability to
inhale and exhale like fish with gills or bacteria
D. eliminate waste products.
Correct. All living organisms must eliminate waste to
avoid toxicity
33. Earth has seasons because of
A. Earth’s tilt on its axis.
B. Earth’s distance from the sun.
C. the moon’s gravitational pull.
D. the sun’s temperature changes.
33. Earth has seasons because of
A. Earth’s tilt on its axis.
Correct.
B. Earth’s distance from the sun.
Partially correct. The Earth’s distance from the sun
effects the earth’s climate. Answer A is the best choice.
C. the moon’s gravitational pull.
Incorrect. Affects the rise and fall of the ocean tides.
D. the sun’s temperature changes.
Incorrect. The sun’s temperature is fairly constant.
34. The producer in the food web shown
above is the
A. grass.
B. mouse.
C. mountain lion.
D. owl.
34. The producer in the food web shown above is the
A. grass.
Correct. Autotrophic organism, such as a plant,
capture light energy to make organic molecules.
B. mouse.
Incorrect. Consumer, heterotrophic organism that must
consume other organisms to gain nutrients.
C. mountain lion.
Incorrect. Consumer
D. owl.
Incorrect. Consumer
35. The long necks of a giraffe may
best be explained by
A. giraffes constantly stretching their
necks over time.
B. short-necked giraffes were less
able to compete for food.
C. the theory of the use and disuse
of organs.
D. the extinction of other long-necked
animals due to climate change.
35. The long necks of a giraffe may best be explained by
A. giraffes constantly stretching their necks over time.
Incorrect. This would not affect the giraffe’s DNA, therefore could
not be passed on to the offspring. (Lamarck’s theory that was
disproved)
B. short-necked giraffes were less able to compete for food.
Correct. Short necked giraffes died off and long necked giraffes
survived and left more offspring.
C. the theory of the use and disuse of organs.
Incorrect. Lamarck’s Theory that was disproved.
D. the extinction of other long-necked animals due to climate change.
Might be possible if the other animals competed for the same food
but B is a better explanation
36. Which BEST explains why a lake is
frozen on the surface but not below the
surface?
A. Ice floats.
B. Water freezes at 0 °C.
C. Ice lets light through the water.
D. Water is clear.
36. Which BEST explains why a lake is frozen on the
surface but not below the surface?
A. Ice floats.
Correct. As the air temperature cools the water it freezes. Ice is
less dense than water if it is frozen.
B. Water freezes at 0 °C.
Incorrect. Water does freeze at this temperature, but it doesn’t
explain why it is frozen on the surface and not below.
C. Ice lets light through the water.
Incorrect. Ice can let light through, but it doesn’t explain why it is
frozen on the surface and not below.
D. Water is clear.
Incorrect. Water is clear, but that has no effect on water freezing.
37. How does the heat inside Earth’s core
affect what happens on Earth’s surface?
A. The heat warms Earth’s crust in the world’s
desert and tropical regions.
B. The heat causes convection currents in
Earth’s mantle which move the tectonic plates.
C. The heat from the core sets up wind patterns
in Earth’s lower atmosphere.
D. The heat is slowly melting the glaciers found
around the North and South Poles of Earth.
37. How does the heat inside Earth’s core affect what happens on Earth’s surface?
A. The heat warms Earth’s crust in the world’s desert and tropical regions.
Incorrect. The amount of sunlight and local conditions create deserts and
tropical regions.
B. The heat causes convection currents in Earth’s mantle which move the
tectonic plates.
Correct. Heat from the core melts the material in the mantle causing it to flow
like a liquid and creating convection currents. The tectonic plates float on top
of the mantle and are therefore moved by the motion of the mantle below.
C. The heat from the core sets up wind patterns in Earth’s lower atmosphere.
Incorrect. The amount of sunlight, local conditions, and the Coriollis affect,
create wind patterns in Earth’s lower atmosphere
D. The heat is slowly melting the glaciers found around the North and South
Poles of Earth.
Incorrect. The atmospheric temperature changes affect the formation and
melting of glaciers.
38. What process is represented by the
bracketed section B shown above?
A. cell duplication
B. asexual reproduction
C. sex cell formation
D. egg fertilization
38. What process is represented by the bracketed section B shown
above
A.
cell duplication
Incorrect. Each cell is different than the originating cell.
B. asexual reproduction
Incorrect. The final cell represents a union of two cell’s genetic
material, not a division of cells.
C. sex cell formation
Incorrect. Only the first step in section B represents gamete
formation, but the second step represents fusion of two of these
gametes.
D. egg fertilization
Correct. Section B is showing the fusion of gametes to form a
zygote with twice the genetic material of the originating cells.
39. The graphic above shows the phase of water at
any given temperature and pressure. If the pressure of
a sample of water is at a temperature T and is raised
from pressure P1 to P2, the water will change from
A.Gas to liquid
B.Liquid to gas
C.Solid to liquid
D.Liquid to solid
39. The graphic above shows the phase of water at any given temperature
and pressure. If the pressure of a sample of water is at a temperature T
and is raised from pressure P1 to P2, the water will change from
A. Gas to liquid is the correct answer because at
temperature T and pressure P1 water is a gas when you
move to pressure P2 it changes to liquid.
B. Liquid to gas is incorrect because at temperature T and
pressure P1 water is a gas not a liquid.
C. Solid to liquid is incorrect because at temperature T and
pressure P1 water is a gas not a solid.
D. Liquid to gas is incorrect because at temperature T and
pressure P1 water is a gas not a liquid.
40. Why does the moon only
have 1/6 of Earth’s gravity?
A.It is very far away from Earth
B.It has no atmosphere.
C.It has less mass than Earth.
D.It is made of basalt.
40. Why does the moon only
have 1/6 of Earth’s gravity?
A.Incorrect. The moon is actually the closest
astronomical object to our planet.
B.Incorrect. The moon has no atmosphere so
there is no weather but that doesn’t affect
gravity.
C.Correct. The moon has less mass therefore
is also has less gravity.
D.Incorrect. The moon is made of basalt but
that doesn’t affect the gravity.
41. The graphic below shows a test tube containing sodium
carbonate resting in a flask containing vinegar (acetic
acid in water). The flask is sealed with a balloon and
weighed. The flask is then tipped so that the sodium
carbonate in the test tube reacts with the vinegar. The
flask is weighed a second time. Which statement best
expresses the relationship between the two weights?
A. The first weight will be greater.
B. The second weight will be greater.
C. The two weights will be the same.
D. The relationship between the weights is
not predictable.
41. Which statement best
expresses the relationship
between the two weights?
A. The first weight will be greater. Incorrect. Does not follow the Law
of Conservation of Mass.
B. The second weight will be greater. Incorrect. Does not follow the
Law of Conservation of Mass.
C. The two weights will be the same. Correct. The mass of a closed
system will remain constant, regardless of the processes
acting inside the system. In addition, matter cannot be created
or destroyed, although it may be rearranged.
D. The relationship between the weights is not predictable. Incorrect.
Does not follow the Law of Conservation of mass.
42. A year on Jupiter is 4,344 days long. This
tells you how long it takes
A. Jupiter to orbit the sun.
B. Jupiter to rotate one time on its axis.
C. the sun to orbit Jupiter.
D. Earth to orbit Jupiter.
42. A year on Jupiter is 4,344 days long. This
tells you how long it takes
A. Jupiter to orbit the sun. Correct
B. Jupiter to rotate one time on its axis.
Incorrect. This would be 1 day.
C. The sun to orbit Jupiter. Incorrect.
Jupiter orbits the sun; the sun does not
orbit Jupiter.
D. Earth to orbit Jupiter. Incorrect. The
Earth does not Orbit Jupiter.
43.
All stars, including our sun, give off heat and light.
Which is the best explanation for why we do not feel
the heat from other stars?
A. The other stars are
smaller than the sun.
B. The other stars are much
farther away than the sun.
C. The other stars are not as
bright as the sun.
D. The other stars are not as
hot as the sun.
43.
All stars, including our sun, give off heat and light.
Which is the best explanation for why we do not feel
the heat from other stars?
A. The other stars are smaller than the sun. Incorrect. Other stars
can be bigger or smaller than the sun.
B. The other stars are much farther away than the sun. Correct.
C. The other stars are not as bright as the sun. Incorrect. Other
stars brightness can be lesser or greater than the sun.
D. The other stars are not as hot as the sun.
Incorrect. Other stars can have a temperature that is lesser or greater
than the sun.
44.
The graph on the next slide shows the relationship
between an island’s size (in hectares) and the
number of plant and animal species on the island.
What can be concluded from this graph?
A. There is no relationship between an island’s size and its biodiversity
B. Flamingo Island has more diversity of plant and animal species than
Blue Island.
C. Island of the Wind has greater numbers of plant and animal species
because it is protected by the two larger islands.
D. As an island’s size increases, the numbers of plant and animal
species on the island increase.
Return to Question
Graph 44
See Answer
44.
What can be concluded from this graph?
A. There is no relationship between an island’s size and its biodiversity.
Incorrect. There would be a horizontal line or no pattern at all. As the size
increases so does the number of species.
B. Flamingo Island has more diversity of plant and animal species than
Blue Island. Incorrect. Blue island is higher on the graph, therefore has
more species.
C. Island of the Wind has greater numbers of plant and animal species
because it is protected by the two larger islands. Incorrect. It has the
fewest number of species and a map would be needed to determine if there
were larger islands surrounding it.
D. As an island’s size increases, the numbers of plant and animal
species on the island increase. Correct
45. When you use the brakes on your
bike to stop, the energy of the bike’s
motion is converted into
A.
B.
C.
D.
heat energy.
electromagnetic energy.
potential energy.
kinetic energy.
45. When you use the brakes on your
bike to stop, the energy of the bike’s
motion is converted into
A. heat energy. Correct. The friction that occurs produces
heat.
B. electromagnetic energy. Incorrect. This involves wave
energy, not mechanical energy.
C. potential energy.
Incorrect. The potential energy is building, but the
kinetic energy is not converting to potential energy.
D. kinetic energy. Incorrect. Kinetic energy is being lost as
the bike slows down.
46. Green plants can reduce
greenhouse gases by
A. producing oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis.
B. removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during
the process of photosynthesis.
C. absorbing sunlight in the plants’ chlorophyll
molecules.
D. providing shade and moisture to cool the air in the
lower part of the atmosphere.
46. Green plants can reduce
greenhouse gases by
A. producing oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis.
Incorrect. Oxygen is not a greenhouse causing gas.
B. removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during
the process of photosynthesis. Correct
C. absorbing sunlight in the plants’ chlorophyll
molecules. Incorrect. This does not reduce
greenhouse gas.
D. providing shade and moisture to cool the air in the
lower part of the atmosphere. Incorrect. This does
not reduce greenhouse gas.
47. A biotic factor that might be studied
in an ecosystem is the
A. size of soil particles.
B. percent of soil
moisture.
C. rate of algae growth.
D. pH of lake water.
47. A biotic factor that might be studied
in an ecosystem is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
size of soil particles. Incorrect. Soil
is abiotic (was never living). Incorrect.
Soil is abiotic (was never living).
percent of soil moisture. Incorrect.
Soil is abiotic (was never living).
Incorrect. Soil is abiotic (was never
living).
rate of algae growth. Correct. A
biotic factor is something that is alive
or was once alive. Correct. A biotic
factor is something that is alive or
was once alive.
pH of lake water. Incorrect. Water is
abiotic (was never living). Incorrect.
Water is abiotic (was never living).
48. In a chemical reaction, the total mass of the reactants
equals the total mass of the products. In a nuclear reaction,
the total mass of the reactants does not equal the total
mass of the products. What is the MOST likely explanation
for the change of mass in the nuclear reaction?
A.
The mass was measured inaccurately.
B.
Some energy is converted into mass.
C.
Some mass is converted into energy.
D.
There was no increase in mass.
48. In a chemical reaction, the total mass of the reactants
equals the total mass of the products. In a nuclear reaction,
the total mass of the reactants does not equal the total
mass of the products. What is the MOST likely explanation
for the change of mass in the nuclear reaction?
A.
The mass was measured inaccurately. Incorrect. The
question states that mass should be lost.
B.
Some energy is converted into mass. Incorrect. In nuclear
reactions energy is a product.
C.
Some mass is converted into energy. Correct
D.
There was no increase in mass. Incorrect. The question
states that the mass changes.
49. Which are three examples
physical changes?
A. water freezing, gasoline,
evaporating, a nail rusting.
C. wood burning, a
marshmallow melting, a
paper tearing.
B. water boiling, a balloon
bursting, a candle melting.
D. gasoline burning, an egg
rotting, fireworks exploding.
49. Which are three examples
physical changes?
A. water freezing, gasoline,
evaporating, a nail rusting
Incorrect. Chemical change.
C. wood burning, a
marshmallow melting, a
paper tearing Incorrect.
Chemical change.
B. water boiling, a balloon
bursting, a candle melting
Correct. Physical change.
D. gasoline burning, an egg
rotting, fireworks exploding
Incorrect. Chemical change.
50. A farmer observes that a crop of his strawberries
produces different types of fruit. One variety is small
but very juicy. Another variety is very large but lacks
of flavor and juice. You have been asked to give the
farmer advice about growing large, juicy strawberries.
Which would be best advice?
A. He should continue to grow his strawberries the same way
because his crop has a good variety of fruit.
B. He should select the large plants only because consumers like the
large fruit.
C. He should select several of each plant and cross them to see if he
can produce strawberries that are both juicy and large.
D. Selective breeding causes strawberries to get more diseases, so
he should buy new plants.
50. Which would be best advice?
A. He should continue to grow his strawberries the same way
because his crop has a good variety of fruit. Incorrect. He will
continue to get the same crop.
B. He should select the large plants only because consumers like the
large fruit. Incorrect. This will not produce juicy fruit.
C. He should select several of each plant and cross them to see if he
can produce strawberries that are both juicy and large. Correct
D. Selective breeding causes strawberries to get more diseases, so
he should buy new plants. Incorrect. Breeding diverse plants
should cause less disease.
51. A tree grows from a tiny seed
into a huge, 200-foot tall redwood.
Most of the redwood tree’s
structural mass came from
A.minerals in the soil.
B.carbon dioxide in the air.
C.oxygen in the air.
D.nitrogen in the soil.
51. A tree grows from a tiny seed
into a huge, 200-foot tall redwood.
Most of the redwood tree’s
structural mass came from
A. minerals in the soil. Incorrect.
Minerals are trace elements and
contribute to the maintaining the
plants health.
B. carbon dioxide in the air.
Correct. Carbon dioxide is
needed for photosynthesis; the
method the plants create
nutrients.
C. oxygen in the air. Incorrect.
Oxygen is given off by plants.
D. nitrogen in the soil. Incorrect.
Nitrogen is used to make
proteins.
52. The graphic above represents change in a population over time.
The capacity (K) is the number of individuals that can be supported
in the system. Point A indicates that this population has exceeded K.
What negative impact may be anticipated?
A.depletion or degradation of resources
B.underutilization of alternative resources
C.increased rate of mutations
D.increased population growth
52. What negative impact may be anticipated?
A. depletion or degradation of resources Correct. All the food is
consumed before more can be made.
B. underutilization of alternative resources Incorrect. This is not
a negative impact; alternative resources would be a part of K.
C. increased rate of mutations Incorrect. Mutations could be
positive; a large population should have an increase in
mutations.
D. increased population growth Incorrect. Population cannot
increase because the resources would be used up quicker.
53. The burning of fossil fuels may contribute to
all of the following EXCEPT
A. global warming
B. acid rain.
C. the Coriolis effect
D. pollution.
53. The burning of fossil fuels may contribute to
all of the following EXCEPT
A. global warming. Incorrect. It produces
greenhouse gas which contributes to
global warming.
B. acid rain. Incorrect. Sulfur dioxide is
produced by fossil fuel burning and can
cause acid rain.
C. the Coriolis effect Correct. This is
caused by the velocity of a moving
object, not fossil fuels.
D. pollution. Incorrect. It causes several
types of pollution.
54. Which equation is not consistent with
the law of conservation of mass?
A. S + O2  SO2
B. KClO3  KCl + O2
C. CaCO3  CaO + CO2
D. Ca + S  CaS
54. Which equation is not consistent with
the law of conservation of mass?
A. S + O2  SO2 Incorrect. This is a
balanced equation.
B. KClO3  KCl + O2 Correct. This
equation does not have the same
amount of elements on each side.
The equation is not balanced.
C. CaCO3  CaO + CO2 Incorrect.
This is a balanced equation.
D. Ca + S  CaS Incorrect. This is a
balanced equation.
55. The extinction of a species
a. is a natural event experienced by most species.
b. will never happen in a saltwater environment.
c. cannot occur if a very small gene pool is present.
d. is almost always caused by human activity.
55. The extinction of a species
a. is a natural event experienced by most species. Correct
b. will never happen in a saltwater environment. Incorrect.
There are ocean organisms that have gone extinct.
c. cannot occur if a very small gene pool is present.
Incorrect. More likely to occur in a small gene pool, due to
lack of diversity.
d. is almost always caused by human activity. Incorrect.
Organisms have gone extinct before human activity.
56. A student has written the following
hypothesis:
As more salt is added to a container
of ice, the temperature of the mixture
will become lower.
What are two factors that need to be
kept constant to test this hypothesis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
amount of salt and amount of ice
type of salt and amount of ice
size of container and amount of time
air temperature and amount of time
56. What are two factors that need
to be kept constant to test this
hypothesis?
A. amount of salt and amount of ice Incorrect. Salt needs to
be added during the experiment, therefore the amount will
increase.
B. type of salt and amount of ice Correct
C. size of container and amount of time Incorrect. Time is
not a factor because the experiment is not measuring the
rate of time, just temperature differences.
D. air temperature and amount of timeIncorrect. Time is not
a factor because the experiment is not measuring the rate
of time, just temperature differences.
57. A person is standing on a mountain somewhere on
Earth. What is the relationship of the person’s mass and
weight on the top of the mountain versus at sea level?
A. Mass is the same on top of the mountain and at
sea level, and weight is slightly less on the
mountaintop.
B. Weight is the same at both locations and mass is
slightly less on the mountain top.
C. Weight and mass are the same on top of the
mountain and at sea level.
D. Mass is the same at both locations, and weight
is slightly higher on the mountaintop.
57. A person is standing on a mountain somewhere on
Earth. What is the relationship of the person’s mass and
weight on the top of the mountain versus at sea level?
A. Mass is the same on top of the mountain and at
sea level, and weight is slightly less on the
mountaintop. Correct
B. Weight is the same at both locations and mass is
slightly less on the mountain top. Incorrect. The
mass does not change.
C. Weight and mass are the same on top of the
mountain and at sea level. Incorrect. Weight and
mass are not the same measurement.
D. Mass is the same at both locations, and weight
is slightly higher on the mountaintop. Incorrect.
Gravity decreases farther from the core, therefore
weight would be less on the mountain top.
58. Fossils of the Glossopteris, an extinct plant that lived
250 million years ago, have been found in South Africa,
Australia, India, and Antarctica. The seeds of the
Glossopteris were too large to be carried by wind and too
fragile to have been carried by water; therefore, the seeds
could not have naturally crossed the water that separates
the continents today. How do scientists today explain the
occurrence of Glossopteris fossils on all four continents?
A. Land bridges once connected all the
continents.
B. Man carried the seeds in boats from
continent to continent.
C. he continents were once all part of
the same land mass.
D. A tsunami carried the seeds to new
locations.
58. How do scientists today
explain the occurrence of
Glossopteris fossils on all four
continents?
A. Land bridges once connected all the continents.
Incorrect. Seeds cannot walk across a land bridge.
B. Man carried the seeds in boats from continent to
continent. Incorrect. Man was not around 250 million
years ago.
C. The continents were once all part of the same land mass.
Correct
D. A tsunami carried the seeds to new locations. Incorrect.
Tsunami is water and the seeds are to fragile to have
been carried by water.
59. A rollerblader is blading
along the sidewalk. Which
forms of measurement
would be the BEST to use to
determine the rollerblader’s
speed?
A.time and distance
B.volume and time
C.density and mass
D.mass and distance
59. A rollerblader is blading
along the sidewalk. Which
forms of measurement
would be the BEST to use to
determine the rollerblader’s
speed?
A.time and distance Correct. Speed is a
measurement of time and distance.
B.volume and time Incorrect. Volume
measures space.
C.density and mass Incorrect. Density and
mass measure volume.
D.mass and distance Incorrect. Mass is not
needed to determine speed.
60. If you get the mumps when you are
young, you are not likely to get the disease
again. One reason for this is that
A. the mumps virus cannot enter your
body a second time.
B. the medicine you took for mumps is
stored in your body.
C. the mumps virus is not as harmful
when you are older.
D. your body has formed antibodies
against the mumps virus.
60. If you get the mumps when you are
young, you are not likely to get the disease
again. One reason for this is that
A. the mumps virus cannot enter your body a
second time. Incorrect. It can enter your body
more than once.
B. the medicine you took for mumps is stored in
your body. Incorrect. There is not medicine for
the mumps, it’s a virus.
C. the mumps virus is not as harmful when you are
older. Incorrect. It is harmful to adults as well
as children.
D. your body has formed antibodies against the
mumps virus. Correct