Transcript Departure Procedures

DEPARTURE PROCEDURES
“LEARJET 33V CONTACT DEPARTURE.”
Departure Procedures
To effectively separate departing
aircraft from other aircraft, it is
essential that radar controllers
understand the procedures for and
requirements of applicable orders.
Procedures
Include the following items in initial
IFR clearances:
 The departure airport when issuing
a departure clearance for relay to an
aircraft by an FSS, dispatcher, etc.
Procedures
Items in the initial IFR clearances (Cont’d):
Clearance limit
•Specify the destination airport when
practicable, even though it is outside
controlled airspace.
•Issue short-range clearances as provided for
in any procedures established for their use.
•For Air Force One (A1) operations, do not
specify the destination airport.
PHRASEOLOGY: “DESTINATION AS FILED”
Procedures
Items in the initial IFR clearances (Cont’d):
 Departure procedures
•Specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial
heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff as
follows:
− At locations with Air Traffic Control (ATC)
service, specify these items as necessary.
PHRASEOLOGY: “FLY RUNWAY HEADING” or
“TURN LEFT/RIGHT” or “DEPART (direction or
runway)”
SPECIFY INITIAL HEADING
SPECIFY INITIAL HEADING
“DELTA FORTY-FIVE, TURN
RIGHT HEADING ONE
EIGHT ZERO.”
TR-10-4
Procedures
 Departure procedures
•Specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial
heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff as follows
(Cont’d):
− At locations without ATC service, but within a
Class E surface area, specify the previous items as
necessary.
•Obtain/solicit the pilot’s concurrence concerning these
items before issuing them in a clearance.
Phraseology: “VERIFY RIGHT TURN AFTER DEPARTURE
WILL ALLOW COMPLIANCE WITH LOCAL TRAFFIC
PATTERN.”
Or
“VERIFY THIS CLEARANCE WILL ALLOW COMPLIANCE
WITH TERRAIN OR OBSTRUCTION AVOIDANCE.”
Procedures
 Departure procedures
•Specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial
heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff as
follows (Cont’d):
− At all other airports do NOT specify
direction of takeoff/turn after takeoff.
→ If it is necessary to specify an initial
heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff,
issue the initial heading/azimuth so as to
apply ONLY within controlled airspace.
ENTERING CONTROLLED
AIRSPACE
“CHEROKEE SEVEN ONE MIKE,
ENTER CONTROLLED AIRSPACE,
HEADING ONE THREE ZERO.”
RESPONSE ITEM
When issuing a clearance to an aircraft
at a location with ATC service,
specify the _____ and initial heading.
A. speed in climb
B. direction of turn
C. rate of climb
Assigning SIDS
Assign a SID (including transition if
necessary).
Assign a Preferential Departure Route
(PDR), or the route filed by the pilot, only
when:
• A SID is not established for the departure
route to be flown, or
• The pilot has indicated he/she does not
wish to use a SID
− Pilots not wishing to use a SID are
expected to advise ATC.
Assigning SIDS (Cont’d)
 If it is necessary to assign a crossing
altitude that differs from the SID altitude,
repeat the changed altitude to the pilot
for emphasis.
Specify altitudes when they are not
included in the SID
Assigning SIDS (Cont’d)
Route of flight. Specify one or more of
the following:
– Airway, route, course, heading,
azimuth, arc, or vector
– The routing the pilot can expect if any
part of the route beyond a short-range
clearance limit differs from that filed.
“…EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA
(airways, routes or fixes)”.
Assigning SIDS (Cont’d)
Altitude. Use one of the following in the
order of preference listed:
• To the maximum extent possible, Air
Force One will be cleared unrestricted
climb to:
− 9,000’ AGL or higher
− If unable 9,000’ AGL or higher, then
the highest available altitude below
9,000’ AGL.
Assigning SIDS (Cont’d)
• Assign the altitude requested by the pilot
• Assign an altitude, as near as possible to
the altitude requested by the pilot, and
− Inform the pilot of when to expect
clearance to the requested altitude
unless instructions are contained in
the specified SID, or
→ If the requested altitude is not
expected to be available, inform
the pilot of what altitude can be
expected and when/where to expect
it.
Communications Failure
 In the event of a two-way radio communications
failure:
• VFR conditions
− The pilot shall continue the flight under VFR
conditions and land as soon as practicable.
• IFR conditions
− The pilot shall continue the flight at the
highest of the following altitudes or flight
levels for the route segment being flown:
→ The altitude or flight level assigned in
the last ATC clearance received
→ The minimum altitude for IFR
operations
→ The altitude or flight level that ATC has
advised may be expected in a further
clearance
Communications Failure
If the expected altitude is the highest of
the preceding choices, the pilot should
begin a climb to that expected altitude at
the time or fix specified in the clearance,
except when:
− Pilot has proceeded beyond the
specified fix or
− Time designated in the clearance
has expired
Departure Restrictions
Assign departure restrictions when
necessary to separate departures from
other traffic or to restrict or regulate the
departure flow:
– Clearance Void Times
– Holds For Release (HFRs)
– Release Times
A Clearance Void Time is a time
specified by an ATC unit at which a
clearance ceases to be valid unless the
aircraft concerned has already taken
action to comply therewith.
Departure Restrictions
When issuing clearance void times at
airports not served by control towers:
– Provide alternative instructions
requiring pilots to advise ATC of their
intentions no later than 30 minutes
after the clearance void time if not
airborne.
The facility delivering a clearance void
time to a pilot shall issue a time check.
PHRASEOLOGY
• “CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF BY (clearance
void time), and if required, IF NOT OFF BY
(clearance void time), ADVISE (facility) NOT
LATER THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS. TIME
(time in hours, minutes, and the nearest quarter
minute).”
Example:
• Departure Release: “N56LD, released for
departure, clearance void if not off by 1200, if not
off by 1200, advise Broward Approach not later
than 1205 of intentions. Time 1155 and one half.”
Departure Restrictions
A Hold For Release (HFR) is used by ATC to
delay an aircraft for traffic management
reasons, i.e., weather, traffic volume, etc. HFR
instructions (including departure delay
information) are used to inform a pilot or
controller (either directly or through an
authorized relay) that an IFR departure
clearance is not valid until a release time or
additional instructions have been received.
PHRASEOLOGY: “HOLD FOR RELEASE, EXPECT
(time in hours and/or minutes) DEPARTURE
DELAY.”
Departure Restrictions
A Release Time is a departure restriction
issued to a pilot (either directly or
through authorized relay) to separate a
departing aircraft from other traffic.
Release times shall be issued to pilots
when necessary to specify the earliest
time an aircraft may depart
The facility issuing a release time to a
pilot shall include a time check.
PHRASEOLOGY
• “(Aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR
DEPARTURE AT (time in hours and/or
minutes),
and if required,
• IF NOT OFF BY (time), ADVISE (facility) NOT
LATER THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS.
• TIME (time in hours, minutes, and nearest
quarter minute).”
VFR Release of IFR Aircraft
 Release an IFR aircraft requesting a VFR
departure after obtaining approval (if necessary)
from the facility/sector responsible for issuing
the IFR clearance.
– Inform the pilot of:
− The proper frequency
− If appropriate, where or when to contact
the facility responsible for issuing the
clearance
Phraseology: “VFR DEPARTURE AUTHORIZED.
CONTACT (facility) ON (frequency) AT
(location or time if required) FOR CLEARANCE.”
VFR Release of IFR Aircraft
(Cont’d)
If the facility/sector responsible for
issuing the clearance is unable to issue a
clearance:
 Inform the pilot.
 Suggest that the delay be taken on the
ground.
If the pilot insists upon taking off VFR,
inform the facility/sector of:


Pilot’s intentions and, if possible,
VFR departure time.
Overdue/Unreported Aircraft
IFR traffic that could be affected by an
overdue or unreported aircraft shall be
restricted or suspended unless radar
separation is used.
 The facility responsible shall restrict or
suspend IFR traffic for a period of 30
minutes following:
Overdue/Unreported Aircraft
 The facility responsible shall restrict or suspend
IFR traffic for a period of 30 minutes following:
 Release time and, if issued, the Clearance
Void Time
 Time at which approach clearance was
delivered to the pilot
 Expect further clearance time delivered to the
pilot
 Arrival time over the NAVAID serving the
destination airport
 Current estimate (either the control facility’s
or the pilot’s, whichever is later) at the:
– Appropriate en route NAVAID or fix
– NAVAID serving the destination airport
Traffic Restrictions (Cont’d)
 After the 30-minute traffic suspension period has
expired:
 Resume normal air traffic control if the pilots of
other aircraft concur.
 Concurrence must be maintained for a period of 30
minutes after the suspension period has expired.
NOTE: Even though a Clearance Void Time is issued
to a pilot, failure to meet that void time does not
necessarily mean the pilot never departed. The aircraft
could have encountered an emergency condition on
departure, and might be airborne but below radio/radar
coverage.
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT
OVERVIEW
Traffic Management
Traffic Management is a process to meter traffic in and
out of airports, sectors, airways, etc. based on weather,
equipment failures, accidents, runway configurations
or any other situation that may impact traffic at a given
point.

National traffic management initiatives are
generated by the Air Traffic Control System
Command Center (ATCSCC).

Local traffic management initiatives may be
generated by the overriding ARTCC TMU
coordinated through the ATCSCC.
Traffic Management
Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) is a
computer generated time issued in conjunction with a
ground delay program to a given airport.
 To the extent possible, plan ground movement of
aircraft destined to the affected area/airport so that
flights are sequenced to depart as near as possible to
the assigned EDCT;
No earlier than 5 minutes prior to, or later
than 5 minutes after the assigned EDCT.
 Do not release aircraft on their assigned EDCT if a
Ground Stop (GS) applicable to that aircraft is in effect,
unless approval has been received from the originator
of the ground stop.
Traffic Management
 A ground stop is a process whereby an
immediate constraint can be placed on system
demand. It may be used when an area, center,
sector, or airport experiences a significant
reduction in capacity.
 Controllers should not release an aircraft
affected by the ground stop unless
specifically released by the originator of
the ground stop.
TRAFFIC SITUATION
DISPLAY (TSD)
RESPONSE ITEM
When it is NOT included in the
SID, specify the ___________.
A.
altitude
B.
heading
C. route of flight
RESPONSE ITEM
In the event of a lost or overdue
aircraft, suspend or restrict IFR traffic
for a period of ______ minutes.
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
RESPONSE ITEM
In the event of a two-way radio
communications failure in VFR
conditions, the pilot shall continue
the flight under VFR and______.
A. continue to the destination
airport
B. land as soon as practicable
C. return to the departure airport
RESPONSE ITEM
Select the correct phraseology to
release an aircraft through a Flight
Service Station.
A. “(acid), RELEASED.”
B. “ADVISE (acid), RELEASED FOR
DEPARTURE.”
C. “(acid), RELEASED FOR
DEPARTURE.”
RESPONSE ITEM
If an IFR aircraft refuses to take a delay
on the ground and insists on departing
VFR, inform the facility/sector of _______.
A. pilot’s intentions
B. the VFR departure time
C. A and B
Prominent Obstructions

Departures and missed approach aircraft
(within 40 miles of the antenna) may be
vectored below the minimum IFR altitude
(within controlled airspace) if separation from
prominent obstructions displayed on the radar
scope is provided as follows:
Prominent Obstructions
If the flight path is 3 miles or more from the
obstruction and the aircraft is climbing to an
altitude at least 1,000 feet above the
obstruction:
 Vector the aircraft to maintain 3 miles
radar separation from the obstruction until
the aircraft reports leaving an altitude above
the obstruction.
OBSTRUCTION 3 MILES OR MORE
FROM FLIGHT PATH
“BARON FIVE FIVE
VICTOR, TURN LEFT
HEADING ZERO SIX ZERO,
MAINTAIN THREE
THOUSAND.”
G
N1855V
018 120
Prominent Obstructions (Cont’d)
If the flight path is less than 3 miles from an
obstruction and the aircraft is climbing to an
altitude at least 1,000 feet above the
obstruction:
 Vector the aircraft to increase lateral
separation from the obstruction until the:
–3-mile minimum is achieved, or
–Aircraft reports leaving an altitude
above the obstruction
NOTE: If the controller observes the aircraft
with a valid Mode C leaving an altitude
above the obstruction, no pilot report is
needed.
OBSTRUCTION LESS THAN 3
MILES FROM FLIGHT PATH
G
“BARON FIVE FIVE
VICTOR, TURN RIGHT
HEADING TWO TWO
ZERO, VECTOR FOR
OBSTRUCTION
CLEARANCE.”
N1855V
014 120
Prominent Obstructions (Cont’d)
At those locations where Diverse Vector Areas
(DVAs) have been established:
 Terminal radar facilities may vector
aircraft below the Minimum Vector
Altitude (MVA)/Minimum IFR Altitude (MIA)
within those areas and along those routes
described in facility directives.
RESPONSE ITEM
The distance that must be maintained
from an obstruction until the aircraft
reports leaving an altitude above the
obstruction is ______ mile(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
Successive Departures
 Separate aircraft departing from the same
airport/heliport or adjacent airports/heliports using the
following minima provided:
 Radar identification with the aircraft will be
established within 1 mile of the takeoff
runway/helipad end,
and
 Courses will diverge by 15 degrees or more.
- Between aircraft departing the same
runway/helipad or parallel
runways/helicopter takeoff courses
separated by less than 2,500 feet:
-Use 1 mile if courses diverge immediately
after departure.
Successive Departures (Cont’d)
NOTE: This procedure does not apply
when a small aircraft is taking off from an
intersection on the same runway behind
a large aircraft or when an aircraft is
departing behind a heavy jet/B757.
SUCCESSIVE DEPARTURES
15 DEGREES
OR MORE
SUCCESSIVE DEPARTURES
(Cont’d)
15° OR
MORE
LESS THAN
2,500 FEET
Successive Departures (Cont’d)
− Between aircraft departing from
diverging, nonintersecting runways:
→ Authorize simultaneous takeoffs
if the runways diverge by 15
degrees or more.
NONINTERSECTING RUNWAY
DEPARTURES
15° OR
MORE
Successive Departures (Cont’d)
− Between aircraft departing from diverging,
intersecting runways and/or helicopter takeoff
courses:
→
Authorize takeoff of a
succeeding aircraft when the
preceding aircraft has
passed the point of runway
and/or takeoff course
intersection, and runway or
takeoff courses diverge by 15
degrees or more.
INTERSECTING RUNWAY
DEPARTURES
15° OR
MORE
Successive Departures (Cont’d)
-

Between aircraft departing in the same
direction from parallel
runways/helicopter takeoff courses:
Authorize simultaneous takeoffs
if the centerlines/takeoff courses
are separated by at least 2,500
feet and courses diverge by 15
degrees or more.
Consider aircraft performance characteristics
when applying initial separation to
successive departing aircraft.
PARALLEL RUNWAY
DEPARTURES
15° OR
MORE
RESPONSE ITEM
Separate aircraft departing from same
or adjacent airports/heliports by 1
mile provided radar identification is
established within 1 mile of the
takeoff runway/helipad end and
courses will diverge by _____ degrees
or more.
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
RESPONSE ITEM
Separate aircraft departing the same
runway/helipad or parallel
runways/helicopter takeoff courses
separated by less than 2,500 feet by
_____ mile(s) if courses diverge
immediately after departure.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
RESPONSE ITEM
Authorize simultaneous takeoffs if
nonintersecting runways diverge by
______ degrees or more.
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
PARALLEL RUNWAYS SEPARATED
BY AT LEAST 2,500 FEET
APPROACH
COURSE
MISSED APPROACH
COURSE
MINIMUM OF
2,500 FEET
30 DEGREES OR MORE
APPROACH
COURSE
MISSED APPROACH
COURSE
MINIMUM OF
2,500 FEET
H
30 DEGREES OR MORE
DIVERGING NONINTERSECTING
RUNWAYS
APPROACH
COURSE
RUNWAY EDGES DO NOT TOUCH
15 DEGREES
OR MORE
30 DEGREES
OR MORE
QUESTION
A departure may be released when an
arrival is 2 or more miles from
touchdown and separation will increase
to 3 miles within _______ minute(s) after
takeoff.
ANSWER
1