Transcript FAR’s for Instrument Flying

FAR’s for Instrument Flying
FAR 1
FAR 61
FAR 91
NTSB 830
FAR 1
Definitions & Abbreviations
 ATC - A service operated by an
appropriate authority to promote safe,
orderly and expeditious flow of traffic
 Alternate Airport
 Area navigation - means of navigation
that can provide any desired course.
 Category I, II, III
FAR 1
Definitions & Abbreviations
 Ceiling - lowest layer of cloud or
obscuring phenomena classified as
broken, overcast, or obscuration: not
listed as thin or partial
 Controlled Airspace - A, B, C, D, E
 Decision Height - height at which a
decision must be made. ILS, PAR
 Flight Level
FAR 1
Definitions & Abbreviations
 Flight Visibility - average horizontal
forward distance from the cockpit.
 Ground Visibility - prevailing
horizontal visibility near surface as
reported by US NWS or an accredited
observer.
 IFR conditions - not VFR below 1000
and 3
FAR 1
Definitions & Abbreviations
 IFR over-the-top - maintain VFR over
clouds, still IFR flight plan.
 MDA - lowest MSL altitude to which
descent is authorized associated with a
non precision approach.
 Non precision approach - no glideslope
 Precision approach - with electronic
glideslope
Part 61
 3, 51, 57, 133
FAR 61
 61.3(e) - No person may act as PIC
under IFR unless that person holds
instrument rating for type of airplane
flown.
FAR 61
 61.51(g) - Logging time


Only instrument time may be logged as
instrument time
For recent instrument experience include
• Location and type of each approach
• Safety pilot

A Sim or FTD may used if a CFII is
present.
FAR 61
 61.57 (C) - To act PIC under IFR,
within preceding 6 calendar months:




Logged 6 approaches
Holding procedures
Intercepting and tracking courses through
use of nav systems
Note: A Sim or FTD may be used.
FAR 61
 61.57 (d) - Instrument Proficiency
Check may be used instead of 6
approaches within 6 months. Given by
CFII, examiner, check pilot.

Note: a Sim or FTD may be used.
FAR 61
 61.65 - Instrument Rating
Requirements under Part 61
Part 91
 3, 21, 103, 109, 113, 121, 123, 129,
131, 135, 155, 157, 159, 167, 169, 171,
173, 175, 177, 179, 181, 185, 187, 205,
211, 215, 411, 413
Part 91
 91.3 - PIC is PIC
 91.21 - use of electronic devices that
may cause interference with nav
systems is prohibited.(cell phones,
stepping motors etc.)
 91.103 - Latest info required,
alternatives available, known traffic
delays.
Part 91
 91.167- Enough fuel to fly to first
airport, then if an alternate is required,
fly to alternate airport, then fly for 45
min after at normal cruising speed. An
alternate is not required if 1 hr of ETA,
2000’ ceiling, 3 miles visibility.
Part 91
 91.169 - To be an alternate, unless
denoted by A in triangle on NOS charts



Precision approach - 2 mi., 600’
Non precision approach - 2 mi., 800’
No approach - allow descent from MEA
to approach and landing under VFR
Part 91
 91.185 - Comm Failure

If VFR, remain VFR and land as soon as
practical.
Part 91
 91.185 - Comm Failure

If IFR
• Route
– Last assigned
– Radar vectored, direct to fix, route or
airway specified in vector clearance.
– EFC
– Filed
Part 91
 91.185 - Comm Failure

If IFR
• Altitude - Highest of
– Last assigned
– MEA
– EFC
• Time
– Commence approach as close as possible
to EFC or filed.
Part 91
 91.205 Instrument and Equipment
Readiness



For IFR flight, navigation equipment
must be appropriate to ground facilities
Above 24,000, DME required if using
VOR navigational equipment
Need attitude indicator, heading indicator
and turn coordinator for IFR
Part 91
 91.211 Supplemental Oxygen



Above 15,000, each passenger must be
provided supplemental oxygen
Above 14,000, required crew must use
Between 12,500 and 14,000, oxygen must
be provided for time in excess of 30
minutes
Part 91
 91.215 ATC Transponder and Altitude
Reporting Equipment and use





Must use Mode C
Within Class B
Within 30 NM of primary Class B airport
Within and above Class C
Above 10,000 ft MSL except below
2,500 AGL and in Class A airspace
 91.215




Requests for deviations must be made to the
ATC Facility
If transponder fails in flight, ATC may
authorize to continue to destination
If transponder works, but Mode C does not
you may request a deviation
If transponder inop, request 1 hr before flight
Part 91
 91.411 Altimeter System and Altitude
Reporting Equipment Test and Inspections

Each static pressure system and altimeter
instrument must be tested by the end of the
24th month
NTSB 830
 Accidents, incidents, overdue AC, and
preservation of wreckage
Under which condition must the pilot
in command of a civil aircraft have
at least an instrument rating?
A.
For a flight in VFR conditions
while on an IFR flight plan.
B.
For any flight above an altitude
of 1,200 feet AGL, when the
visibility is less than 3 miles.
C.
When operating in class E
airspace.
Under which condition must the pilot
in command of a civil aircraft have
at least an instrument rating?
A.
For a flight in VFR conditions
while on an IFR flight plan.
The pilot in command of a civil
aircraft must have an instrument
rating only when operating
A.
under IFR, in weather conditions
less than the minimum for VFR flight
or in class A airspace.
B.
in weather conditions less than
the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.
C.
under IFR in positive control
airspace.
The pilot in command of a civil
aircraft must have an instrument
rating only when operating
A.
under IFR, in weather conditions
less than the minimum for VFR flight
or in class A airspace.
Which flight time may be logged as
instrument time when on an instrument
flight plan?
A.
Only the time you controlled the
aircraft solely by reference to flight
instruments.
B.
All of the time the aircraft was
not controlled by ground references.
C.
Only the time you were flying in
IFR weather conditions.
Which flight time may be logged as
instrument time when on an instrument
flight plan?
A.
Only the time you controlled the
aircraft solely by reference to flight
instruments.
What portion of dual instruction time may
a certificated instrument flight
instructor log as instrument flight time?
A.
Only the time during which the
instructor flies the aircraft by reference
to instruments.
B.
All time during which the instructor
acts as instrument instructor, regardless
of weather conditions.
C.
All time during which the instructor
acts as instrument instructor in actual
instrument weather conditions.
What portion of dual instruction time
may a certificated instrument flight
instructor log as instrument flight
time?
C.
All time during which the
instructor acts as instrument
instructor in actual instrument
weather conditions.
If a pilot enters the condition of
flight in the pilot logbook as
simulated instrument conditions, what
qualifying information must also be
entered?
A.
Name and pilot certificate number
of safety pilot and type of approaches
completed.
B.
Number and type of instrument
approaches completed and route of
flight.
C.
Location and type of each
instrument approach completed and name
of safety pilot.
If a pilot enters the condition of
flight in the pilot logbook as
simulated instrument conditions, what
qualifying information must also be
entered?
C.
Location and type of each
instrument approach completed and name
of safety pilot.
How long does a pilot remain current
for IFR flight after successfully
completing an instrument competency
check if no further IFR flights are
made?
A.
6 months.
B.
90 days.
C.
12 months.
How long does a pilot remain current
for IFR flight after successfully
completing an instrument competency
check if no further IFR flights are
made?
A.
6 months.
To meet the minimum required instrument
flight experience to act as pilot in
command of an aircraft under IFR, you
must have logged within the preceding 6
calendar months in the same category of
aircraft: six instrument approaches,
A.
and 6 hours of instrument time in any
aircraft.
B.
three of which must be in the same
category and class of aircraft to be
flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in
any aircraft.
C.
holding procedures, intercepting and
tracking courses through the use of
navigation systems.
To meet the minimum required
instrument flight experience to act
as pilot in command of an aircraft
under IFR, you must have logged
within the preceding 6 calendar
months in the same category of
aircraft: six instrument approaches,
C.
holding procedures,
intercepting and tracking courses
through the use of navigation
systems.
An instrument rated pilot, who has not
logged any instrument time in 1 year or
more, cannot serve as pilot in command
under IFR, unless the pilot
A.
completes the required 6 hours and
six approaches, followed by an instrument
proficiency check given by an FAAdesignated examiner.
B.
passes an instrument proficiency
check in the category of aircraft
involved, followed by 6 hours and six
instrument approaches, 3 of those hours
in the category of aircraft involved.
C.
passes an instrument proficiency
check in the category of aircraft
involved, given by an approved FAA
examiner, instrument instructor, or
FAA inspector.
An instrument rated pilot, who has not
logged any instrument time in 1 year or
more, cannot serve as pilot in command
under IFR, unless the pilot
C.
passes an instrument proficiency
check in the category of aircraft
involved, given by an approved FAA
examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA
inspector.
To carry passengers for hire in an
airplane on cross country flights of
more than 50 NM from the departure
airport, the pilot in command is
required to hold at least
A.
a First Class Medical
certificate.
B.
a Category II pilot
authorization.
C.
a Commercial Pilot Certificate
with an instrument rating.
To carry passengers for hire in an
airplane on cross country flights of
more than 50 NM from the departure
airport, the pilot in command is
required to hold at least
C.
a Commercial Pilot Certificate
with an instrument rating.
Which limitation is imposed on the
holder of a Commercial Pilot
Certificate if that person does not
hold an instrument rating?
A.
The carrying of passengers or
property for hire on cross country
flights at night is limited to a radius
of 50 NM.
B.
The carrying of passengers for
hire on cross country flights is
limited to 50 NM and the carrying of
passengers for hire at night is
prohibited.
C.
That person is limited to private
pilot privileges at night.
Which limitation is imposed on the
holder of a Commercial Pilot
Certificate if that person does not
hold an instrument rating?
B.
The carrying of passengers for
hire on cross country flights is
limited to 50 NM and the carrying of
passengers for hire at night is
prohibited.
Who is responsible for determining that
the altimeter system has been checked
and found to meet 14 CFR part 91
requirements for a particular
instrument flight?
A.
Pilot-in-command.
B.
Owner.
C.
Operator.
Who is responsible for determining that
the altimeter system has been checked
and found to meet 14 CFR part 91
requirements for a particular
instrument flight?
A.
Pilot-in-command.
The use of certain portable
electronic devices is prohibited on
aircraft that are being operated
under
A.
VFR.
B.
DVFR.
C.
IFR.
The use of certain portable
electronic devices is prohibited on
aircraft that are being operated
under
C.
IFR.
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the
pilot in command must become familiar with
all available information concerning that
flight. In addition, the pilot must
A.
be familiar with the runway lengths
at airports of intended use, and the
alternatives available if the flight
cannot be completed.
B.
list an alternate airport on the
flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff
and landing performance at the destination
airport.
C.
list an alternate airport on the
flight plan and become familiar with the
instrument approaches to that airport.
Before beginning any flight under
IFR, the pilot in command must become
familiar with all available
information concerning that flight.
In addition, the pilot must
A.
be familiar with the runway
lengths at airports of intended use,
and the alternatives available if the
flight cannot be completed.
What are the minimum qualifications
for a person who occupies the other
control seat as safety pilot during
simulated instrument flight?
A.
Private pilot certificate with
appropriate category and class ratings
for the aircraft.
B.
Private pilot with instrument
rating.
C.
Private pilot with appropriate
category, class, and instrument
ratings.
What are the minimum qualifications
for a person who occupies the other
control seat as safety pilot during
simulated instrument flight?
A.
Private pilot certificate with
appropriate category and class ratings
for the aircraft.
When may ATC request a detailed report
of an emergency even though a rule has
not been violated?
A.
Any time an emergency occurs.
B.
When priority has been given.
C.
When the emergency occurs in
controlled airspace.
When may ATC request a detailed report
of an emergency even though a rule has
not been violated?
B.
When priority has been given.
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an
emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC
clearance. What action must be taken?
A.
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as
possible.
B.
Squawk 7700 for the duration of the
emergency.
C.
Submit a detailed report to the chief of
the ATC facility within 48 hours.
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an
emergency which causes a deviation from
an ATC clearance. What action must be
taken?
A.
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon
as possible.
The aircraft's transponder fails during
flight within Class D airspace.
A.
Pilot must immediately request
priority handling to proceed to
destination.
B.
The pilot should immediately
request clearance to depart the Class
D airspace.
C.
No deviation is required because
a transponder is not required in
Class D airspace.
The aircraft's transponder fails
during flight within Class D
airspace.
C.
No deviation is required because
a transponder is not required in
Class D airspace.
In addition to a VOR receiver and two
way communications capability, which
additional equipment is required for
IFR operation in Class B airspace?
A.
Another VOR and communications
receiver and a coded transponder.
B.
Standby communications receiver,
DME, and coded transponder.
C.
An operable coded transponder
having Mode C capability.
In addition to a VOR receiver and two
way communications capability, which
additional equipment is required for
IFR operation in Class B airspace?
C.
An operable coded transponder
having Mode C capability.
When are you required to have an
instrument rating for flight in VMC?
A.
Flight through an MOA.
B.
Flight into class A airspace.
C.
Flight into an ADIZ.
When are you required to have an
instrument rating for flight in VMC?
B.
Flight into class A airspace.
When is an IFR flight plan required?
A.
In all Class E airspace when
conditions are below VFR, in Class A
airspace, and in defense zone
airspace.
B.
In Class E airspace when IMC
exists or in Class A airspace.
C.
When less than VFR conditions
exist in either Class E or Class G
airspace and in Class A airspace.
When is an IFR flight plan required?
B.
In Class E airspace when IMC
exists or in Class A airspace.
What is the required flight visibility
and distance from clouds if you are
operating in Class E airspace at 9,500
feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance
during daylight hours?
A.
3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B.
3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
C.
5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
What is the required flight visibility
and distance from clouds if you are
operating in Class E airspace at 9,500
feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance
during daylight hours?
A.
3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
What is the minimum flight visibility
and distance from clouds for flight at
10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance
during daylight hours? (Class E
airspace.)
A.
5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet
below, and 1 mile horizontal.
B.
5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet
below, and 1 mile horizontal.
C.
3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
What is the minimum flight visibility
and distance from clouds for flight at
10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance
during daylight hours? (Class E
airspace.)
B.
5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet
below, and 1 mile horizontal.
What are the minimum fuel requirements for
airplanes in IFR conditions, if the first
airport of intended landing is forecast to
have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles
visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to
fly to the first airport of intended
landing,
A. fly to the alternate, and fly
thereafter for 45 minutes at normal
cruising speed.
B. and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at
normal cruising speed.
C. fly to the alternate, and fly
thereafter for 30 minutes at normal
cruising speed.
What are the minimum fuel
requirements for airplanes in IFR
conditions, if the first airport of
intended landing is forecast to have
a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles
visibility at flight-planned ETA?
Fuel to fly to the first airport of
intended landing,
A.
fly to the alternate, and fly
thereafter for 45 minutes at normal
cruising speed.
Is an alternate airport required for an
IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if
the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ
BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG
0608
02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM
CLR=
A.
No, because the ceiling and
visibility are forecast to be at or above
2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour
before to 1 hour after the ETA.
B.
No, because the ceiling and
visibility are forecast to remain at
or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles,
respectively.
C.
Yes, because the ceiling could
fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours
before to 2 hours after the ETA.
Is an alternate airport required for an
IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if
the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ
BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG
0608
02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM
CLR=
A.
No, because the ceiling and
visibility are forecast to be at or above
2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour
before to 1 hour after the ETA.
When a pilot elects to proceed to the
selected alternate airport, which
minimums apply for landing at the
alternate?
A.
The landing minimums for the
approach to be used.
B.
Ceiling 200 feet above the
published minimum; visibility 2 miles.
C.
600 1 if the airport has an ILS.
When a pilot elects to proceed to the
selected alternate airport, which
minimums apply for landing at the
alternate?
A.
The landing minimums for the
approach to be used.
What minimum weather conditions must
be forecast for your ETA at an
airport that has only a VOR approach
with standard alternate minimums, for
the airport to be listed as an
alternate on the IFR flight plan?
A.
1,000 foot ceiling and
visibility to allow descent from
minimum en route altitude (MEA),
approach, and landing under basic
VFR.
B.
800 foot ceiling and 2 SM
visibility.
C.
800 foot ceiling and 1 statute
mile (SM) visibility.
What minimum weather conditions must
be forecast for your ETA at an
airport that has only a VOR approach
with standard alternate minimums, for
the airport to be listed as an
alternate on the IFR flight plan?
B.
800 foot ceiling and 2 SM
visibility.
What minimum conditions must exist at
the destination airport to avoid
listing an alternate airport on an IFR
flight plan when a standard IAP is
available?
A.
From 1 hour before to 1 hour
after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and
visibility 3 miles.
B.
From 2 hours before to 2 hours
after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and
visibility 3 miles.
C.
From 2 hours before to 2 hours
after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and
visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
What minimum conditions must exist at
the destination airport to avoid
listing an alternate airport on an IFR
flight plan when a standard IAP is
available?
A.
From 1 hour before to 1 hour
after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and
visibility 3 miles.
What record shall be made in the
aircraft log or other permanent
record by the pilot making the VOR
operational check?
A.
The date, place, satisfactory
or unsatisfactory, and signature.
B.
The date, place, bearing
error, and signature.
C.
The date, frequency of VOR or
VOT, number of flight hours since
last check, and signature.
What record shall be made in the
aircraft log or other permanent
record by the pilot making the VOR
operational check?
B.
The date, place, bearing
error, and signature.
When must an operational check on the
aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished
to operate under IFR?
A.
Within the preceding 30 days.
B.
Within the preceding 10 days or
10 hours of flight time.
C.
Within the preceding 30 days or
30 hours of flight time.
When must an operational check on the
aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished
to operate under IFR?
A.
Within the preceding 30 days.
What is the maximum tolerance allowed for
an operational VOR
when using a VOT?
A.
Plus or minus
B.
Plus or minus
C.
Plus or minus
equipment check
6°.
8°.
4°.
What is the maximum tolerance allowed
for an operational VOR equipment
check when using a VOT?
C.
Plus or minus 4°.
When departing from an airport located
outside controlled airspace during IMC,
you must file an IFR flight plan and
receive a clearance before
A.
entering Class E airspace.
B.
entering IFR conditions.
C.
takeoff.
When departing from an airport located
outside controlled airspace during IMC,
you must file an IFR flight plan and
receive a clearance before
A.
entering Class E airspace.
Except when necessary for takeoff or
landing or unless otherwise
authorized by the Administrator, the
minimum altitude for IFR flight is
A.
3,000 feet over designated
mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over
terrain elsewhere.
B.
2,000 feet above the highest
obstacle over designated mountainous
terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest
obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
C.
3,000 feet over all terrain.
Except when necessary for takeoff or
landing or unless otherwise
authorized by the Administrator, the
minimum altitude for IFR flight is
B.
2,000 feet above the highest
obstacle over designated mountainous
terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest
obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
What minimum navigation equipment is
required for IFR flight?
A.
Navigation equipment appropriate
to the ground facilities to be used.
B.
VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III
environment, a coded transponder
equipped for altitude reporting.
C.
VOR/LOC receiver, transponder,
and DME.
What minimum navigation equipment is
required for IFR flight?
A.
Navigation equipment appropriate
to the ground facilities to be used.
Where is DME required under IFR?
A.
In positive control airspace.
B.
Above 18,000 feet MSL.
C.
At or above 24,000 feet MSL if
VOR navigational equipment is
required.
Where is DME required under IFR?
C.
At or above 24,000 feet MSL if
VOR navigational equipment is
required.
An aircraft operated under 14 CFR
part 91 IFR is required to have
which of the following?
A.
Gyroscopic direction
indicator.
B.
Radar altimeter.
C.
Dual VOR system.
An aircraft operated under 14 CFR
part 91 IFR is required to have
which of the following?
A.
Gyroscopic direction
indicator.
What is the oxygen requirement for an
unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?
A.
All occupants must use oxygen for
the entire time at this altitude.
B.
Crew must start using oxygen at
12,000 feet and passengers at 15,000
feet.
C.
Crew must use oxygen for the
entire time above 14,000 feet and
passengers must be provided
supplemental oxygen only above 15,000
feet.
What is the oxygen requirement for an
unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?
C.
Crew must use oxygen for the
entire time above 14,000 feet and
passengers must be provided
supplemental oxygen only above 15,000
feet.
What is the maximum cabin pressure
altitude at which a pilot can fly for
longer than 30 minutes without using
supplemental oxygen?
A.
10,500 feet.
B.
12,500 feet.
C.
12,000 feet.
What is the maximum cabin pressure
altitude at which a pilot can fly for
longer than 30 minutes without using
supplemental oxygen?
B.
12,500 feet.
In the 48 contiguous states,
excluding the airspace at or below
2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded
transponder equipped with Mode C
capability is required in all
controlled airspace at and above
A.
10,000 feet MSL.
B.
12,500 feet MSL.
C.
Flight level (FL) 180.
In the 48 contiguous states,
excluding the airspace at or below
2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded
transponder equipped with Mode C
capability is required in all
controlled airspace at and above
A.
10,000 feet MSL.
When an aircraft is not equipped
with a transponder, what requirement
must be met before ATC will
authorize a flight within class B
airspace?
A.
A request for the proposed
flight must be made to ATC at least
1 hour before the flight.
B.
The proposed flight must be
conducted in visual meteorological
conditions (VMC).
C.
The proposed flight must be
conducted when operating under
instrument flight rules.
When an aircraft is not equipped
with a transponder, what requirement
must be met before ATC will
authorize a flight within class B
airspace?
A.
A request for the proposed
flight must be made to ATC at least
1 hour before the flight.
An aircraft altimeter system test and
inspection must be accomplished within
A.
12 calendar months.
B.
24 calendar months.
C.
18 calendar months.
An aircraft altimeter system test and
inspection must be accomplished within
B.
24 calendar months.
Which publication covers the
procedures required for aircraft
accident and incident reporting
responsibilities for pilots?
A.
FAR Part 61.
B.
NTSB Part 830.
C.
FAR Part 91.
Which publication covers the
procedures required for aircraft
accident and incident reporting
responsibilities for pilots?
B.
NTSB Part 830.