MODULE 6

1. Fajans titration uses _______ indicator.

A. Acid-base B. Adsorption C. Metal- ion D. NOTA

2. Other name of ferric ammonium sulphate A. Ferric alum B. Fe NH 4 (SO 4 ) 2 C. Fe (NH 4 ) 2 (SO 4 ) 2 D. A and B

3. These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like porcupine. A. Capsule B. Endospores C. Fimbriae D. Flagella

4. Standard solutions are also known as: A. Test solutions B. Volumetric solutions C. Saturated solutions D. NOTA

5. The end point in using ferric ammonium sulphate is: A. White precipitate B. Red-brown color C. Pink color D. Blue color

6. A structural component of the cell that may enhance virulence of the bacterium include A. Capsule B. Hyalauronidase C. Flagella D. Lecitinase

7. Indicator in the Iodometric method of analysis: A. KMnO 4 B. Methyl red TS C. Methyl orange TS D. Starch TS

8. Assay of diluted HCl is expressed in: A. %w/w B. %w/v C. Both A and B D. NOTA

9. The source of H antigen A. Flagella B. Cell wall C. Pilus D. Plasmid

10. Residue on Ignition is also called: A. Loss on Ignition B. Loss on Drying C. Acid-insoluble ash D. Sulfated ash

11. Limit of moisture in non-aqueous titrimetric analysis is less than: A. 0.5 % B. 0.05% C. 0.2% D. 0.02%

12. A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing antibody is A. Hepatitis B virus vaccine B. MMR vaccine C. Rabies vaccine D. H. influenzae type b vaccine

13. Method II of determining Iodine value is also known as: A. Hubl’s method B. Wij’s method C. Hanus method D. AOTA

14. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP): A. Concerned with record keeping B. Done to facilitate recall C. Step by step method on how to go about a job D. AOTA

17. The maximal reaction time for tuberculin reaction A. 2-5 hours B. 6-10 hours C. 12-20 hours D. 48-72 hours

16. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature of 675 + 25°C. This temperature is represented by: A. Very dull red heat B. Dull red heat C. White red heat D. Bright red heat

Very dull red heat 500-550°C

Dull red heat Bright red heat Yellow red heat White red heat 550-700°C 800-1000°C 1000-1200°C 1200-1600°C

17. A critical defect that would stop the packaging line operation: A. Wrong labels B. Inverted labels C. Misaligned labels D. Smeared

18. Streptomycin is known for A. Erythema nododum leprosum B. Bone marrow depression C. Discoloration of the teeth D. Vestibular damage

19. Hydrolysis products of ASA: A. Acetic acid + sodium hydroxide B. Acetic acid + salicylic acid C. Salicylic acid + sodium hydroxide D. Sodium salicylate + water C 6 H 4 OCOCH 3 COOH + H 2 O  + CH 3 COOH C 6 H 4 OHCOOH

20. Pyrogen test in vitro: A. Colorimeter B. Fluorophotometer C. Cylinder-plate method D. LAL method

21. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is A. Pen G B. Amikacin C. Kanamycin D. Ethambutol

22. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparation is: A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. NP

23. A firm’s removal or correction of a distributed product which involves no violation A. Drug recall B. Stock recovery C. Market withdrawal D. NOTA

24. Tetracycline may be the DOC for all except: A. LGV B. Inclusion conjunctivitis C. Hospital acquired PNX due to klebsiella D. Psittacosis

25. A small volume intravenous solution has a maximum volume of: A. 1000 ml B. 200 ml C. 500 ml D. NOTA

26. A dye used in the leaker test: A. Methylene blue B. Phenolphthalein C. Thymol blue D. NOTA

27. Sulfamic acid (H 3 NSO 3 ) is a primary standard that can be used to standardize sodium hydroxide. What is the molarity if 34.26mL reacts with 0.3337g of sulfamic acid MW=97 A. 0.304

B.

0.1004

C.

0.1005

D. 0.403

28. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of: A. Measles B. Chancre C. Warts D. Herpes

29. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in: A. Capsules B. Ointments C. Emulsions D. Tablets

30. This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistancy M.leprae A. Thalidomide B. Para-aminosalicylic acid C. Clofazime D. Rifampicin

31. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is A. Pen G B. Amikacin C. Kanamycin D. Ethambutol

32. A sterilizing filter has a pore size of A. 0.5 µm B. 0.2 µm C. 1 µm D. NOTA

33. This is an antifungal that acts as by inhibiting lansosterol C14- demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol synthesis A. Griseofulvin B. Miconazole C. Flucytosine D. Ampothericin

34. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of: A. Measles B. Chancre C. Warts D. Herpes

35. Clean room classifications are specified in Federal Standard A. 211E B. 210E C. 209E D. NOTA

36. Use to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element A. Masking agent B. Demasking agent C. Both a and b D. NOTA

37. A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients.

A. Commensalism B. Mutualism C. Parasitism D. Symbiosis

38. The Philippines belongs to what climactic zone: A. I B. II C. III D. IV

39. Describe how close a measure value is to the true value A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Range D. Standard deviation

40. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is: A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. NOTA

41. Disintegration is an essential attribute of this dosage form: A. Plain coated tablet B. Hard gelatin capsule C. Chewable tablet D. AOTA

42 . Tetanus, botulism, diphtheria A. Immediate hypersensitivity B. Cytotoxic antibody C. Immune complex D. Delayed hypersensitivity E. NOTA

43. Which is not a biological indicator in the validation of a moist heat sterilizer?

A. Bacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus subtilis C. Bacillus coagulans

D. NOTA

44. The acceptable pH level of water used for pharmaceutical compounding is A. Between 6.0 and 7.0

B. Between 5.0 and 7.0

C. Between 7.0 and 8.0

D. NOTA

45. Treatment of herpectic conjunctivitis A. Streptomycin B. Iododeoxyuridine C. Rifampicin D. Nalidixic acid

46. This is given together with Isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent neurologic side effects: A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Pyridoxine D. Pyrazinamide

47. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparations is A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. NP

48. What is the titer value 0.05M calcium chloride with 2 moles of water? MW=142.9

A. 3.57mg

B. 7.15mg

C. 73.5mg

• D. 53.7mg

49. This is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans:

A. Taenia solium B. Taenia saginata C. Hymenolepsis nana D. Echinococcus granulosus

50. Safety and Toxicity tests are conducted using: A. Rabbits B. Dogs C. White mice D. Guinea pig

51. The process in which the exact concentration of solution is determined A. Neutralization B. Standardization C. Titration D. Complexation

52. This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke:

A. Fasciola hepatica B. Clonorchis sinensis C. Fasciolopsis buski D. Schistosoma japonicum

53. A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter is that it is consists of: A. Prism B. Lamp house C. Cell compartment D. B and C

54. The crude fiber of a drug usually consist of: A. Cellulose B. Cholesterol C. Phytosterol D. Lard

55. This is the diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis: A. Kato thick method B. Kato-katz method C. Scotch tape swab method D. Brine flotation technique

56. The primary staining reagent of the gram procedure is: A. Methyl red B. Carbol fuchsin C. Crystal violet D. Saffranin

57. Twenty tablets of ascorbic acid weighed 4.250g and a powdered sample of 0.3075g used up 21.5mL of 0.1085N iodine solution. What was the amount of Ascorbic acid per dose of 2 tablets? Each mL of 0.1N iodine is equivalent to 8.80mg of C6H6O6 (Ascorbic acid). The amount is: A. 283.7mg

B. 141.86mg

C. 0.2837g

D. A & C

58. This is the form of malarial parasite that is taken up by the mosquito as it bites on humans: A. Sporozoites B. Merozoites C. Trophozoites D. Gametocytes Gametocytes are the cells taken by a biting anopheles mosquito from man. The male and female gametocyte will fuse in the mosquito’s stomach into an Oocyst that will give rise to the sporozoites.

59. Adsorption indicators are used in: A. Complexation reaction B. Acidimetry C. Volumetric precipitation D. Alkalimetry

60. Iodimetry is what type of titration A. Direct B. Indirect C. Residual D. A & C

61. This is the malarial species that causes the so called “Quartan Malaria”

A. P. ovale B. P. vivax C. P. malariae D. P. falciparum

P.

malariae produces fever every 72 hours or three days which is the so called Quartan malaria, P. Vivax and P. ovale produces fever every 48 hours hence called the Tertian malaria, P. falciparum produces fever every 36-48 hours which is also known as Malignant tertian malaria.

62. To measure the optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is: A. Polarimeter B. Refractometer C. Spectrometer D. Flame photometer

63. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determine is: A. Ultimate B. Specific C. Proximate D. Precision

64. This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in humans: A. Cysts B. Merozoites C. Trophozoites D. Cytostomes Trophozoites are the motile form (juvenile), Cytostome is the mouth from which pieces of food is ingested.

65. The unsaponifiable matter present in animal fats is: A. Cholesterol B. Phytosterol C. Lard D. Wax

66. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance uses a wavelength range of: A. 3-15μm B. 380-780μm C. 200-380μm D. 15-300μm

67. This organism causes a non-bloody diarrhea:

A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Isospora belli D. Strongyloides stercolaris

68. What is the other name of Koettsdorfer number? A. Acid value B. Saponification value C. Ester value D. Iodine value

69. Using a spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of a sample, the following data were obtained absorbance (A) of the standard solution was 0.55

A of the sample was 0.58

The concentration of the standard used was 16.5mcg

The concentration of the sample was: A. 15.5mcg

B. 17.55mcg

C. 17.40mcg

D. 15.9mcg

70. Koplik’s spots seen among patients with measles are usually localized in the: A. Upper extremities B. Lower extremities C. Mouth D. Scalp

71. Body louse is the vector for A. Leptospirosis B. Pinta C. Epidemic relapsing fever D. Meningitis

73. Aside from Praziquatel, this is also given for tapeworm A. Diethylcarbamazine B. Ivermectin C. Mebendazole D. Niclosamide

73. A defect that may affect the function of an object and therefore, may render the product useless A. Major defect B. Minor defect C. Critical defect D. Ocular defect

74. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47cm, what should be the acceptable tablet range? A. 0.4465-0.4935cm

B. 0.4230-0.5170cm

C. 0.4348-0.5050cm

D. 0.3225-0.5875cm

75. The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4 A. +2 B. +1 C. +5 D. +7

76. If a sample of white wax is found to have an ester value of 65.7 and a saponification value 74.2, what is the acid value of the sample? A. 8.5

B. 86.5

C. 186.5

D. 56.5

77. Also known as Eosin Y A. Dichlorofluorescein B. Tetrabromophenolpthalein C. Tetrabromofluorescein D. Xylenol Orange

78. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000mL of 0.5N of the solution. MW=126 A. 36.5g

B. 63.5g

C. 31.5g

D. 23.5g

79. Determine the iodine value of an unknown sample of oil weighed 0.21g if 26mL and 12mLof 0.1100N of sodium thiosulfate are required for the blank and residual titration respectively A. 90 B. 93 C. 108 D. 200

80. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of: A. Grams of solute per 100mL B. Grams or mg of solute per mL C. Grams per liter D. A & C

81. The molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. Its equivalent weight is: A. 98 B. 49 C. 0.098

D. 0.049

82. The oil from peppermint spirit can be determined by using: A. Cassia flask B. Bobcock bottle C. Pycnometer D. Titration

83. Which of the following is an example of aerobic organism?

A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycoplasma pneumonia

84. This spirochete is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at its end A. Vibrio B. Borrelia C. Leptospira • D. Treponema

85. A 4-year old kid complains of itchiness in his anal area. Anal swab from this patient will reveal larvae of which of the following?

• • • •

Leptospira interogans Chlamydia trachomatis Helicobacter pylori Enterobius vermicularis

86. This species of Shigella is responsible for the most infection on the milder side of the spectrum of Shigellosis.

A.

S. dysenteriae B. S. sonnei C. S. boydii D. S. flexneri

87. Beer’s plot in spectrophotometry is prepared to determine: A. Absorbance of the sample B. Wavelength to be used C. Blank D. Concentration of the drug substance

88. One of the following is NOT an in process for tablet A. Bioavailability B. Weight variation C. Hardness and thickness D. Disintegration

89. The temperature used for ignition to constant weight is: A. 725 + 25˚C B. 825 + 25˚C C. 800 + 25˚C D. 750 + 25˚C

90. Potency of a 100mg tablet at expiry date A. 95mg B. 105mg C. 90mg D. 110mg

91. The ester value determination of substance is applicable to the following, EXCEPT: A. Fats B. Volatile oils C. Alcohol D. Fatty oil

92. To keep samples moisture free the apparatus used is: A. Dessicator B. Furnace C. Incubator D. Oven

93. The indicator for EDTA titration against CaCO3 is: A. Thymol blue B. Hydroxynaphthol blue C. Methyl red • D. Methylene blue

94. Adsorption indicators are used in: A. Complexation reaction B. Acidimetry C. Volumetric precipitation D. Alkalimetry

95. Analysis where separation of the constituents from the sample is done by weighing the product is: A. Volumetric B. Gravimetric C. Special D. Gasometric method

96. The primary staining reagent of the Gram procedure is: A. Methyl red B. Carbol fuchsin C. Crystal violet D. Saffranin

97. Which organism is suspected to have infected a goat farmer who had complained a fever of unknown cause?

A. Brucella militensis B. Brucella abortus C. Brucella suis D. Bacillus cereus

98. Diphyllobotrium latum infection may lead to the deficiency of which vitamin?

A. Vit A B. Vit B6 C. Vit B1 D. Vit B12

99. All are extracellular parasite, except;

A. Enterobius B. Trichinella C. Strongyoloides D. Ascaris

100. This sexually transmitted protozoan is common among male homosexual

A. Giardia lamblia B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Faciola hepatica D. Ascaris lumbricoides